Answer:
The correct option is A) Stratified epithelium.
Explanation:
Stratified epithelium is characterized by being formed by more than one layer of epithelial cells. According to the morphology of the cells of the outermost layer, they are classified as keratinized stratified flat epithelium when it has several layers and the outermost are flattened cells and with keratin. The most prominent location of this epithelium is in the skin, forming the epidermis. Its function is to protect and cover surfaces that are in direct contact with the outside or with irritating or traumatic substances.
Afterbirth includes all of the following EXCEPT: Question 3 choices Choice A.,fluid from the amniotic sac. Choice B.,the placenta. Choice C.,the umbilical cord. Choice D.,other membranes.
Answer:
A) fluid from the amniotic sac
Explanation:
Afterbirth involves the expulsion of placenta, umbilical cord and fetal membranes from the uterus followed by the birth of child. While the fluid from the amniotic sac is released before or during the labor which is also called water breaking.
The term afterbirth refers to the placenta, umbilical cord, and other membranes that are expelled from the mother's body after the birth of a child. Option A is likely the correct answer
Explanation:The term afterbirth refers to what is expelled from the mother's body after the birth of a child, which is the third stage of childbirth. It typically includes the placenta, the umbilical cord, and other membranes that surrounded the baby in the womb, such as the amnion and chorion.
Regarding the options given in your question, all of them are generally included in the afterbirth EXCEPT for Choice A: Fluid from the amniotic sac. The amniotic fluid, which surrounds and cushions the baby during gestation, is generally expelled during the process of labor and delivery (often referred to as when a mother's 'water breaks') rather than after the birth itself. Hence, option A is likely the correct answer to your question.
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The explanation for the fact that radioactive isotopes of an element exhibit the same chemical behavior as the stable isotopes of the element is that each has the same:
a. atomic number.
b. number of neutrons.
c. mass number.
d. atomic weight.
Answer:
a. atomic number
Explanation:
Radioactive isotopes of an element have the same chemical behavior as the stable isotopes of the element due to the fact that they have the same atomic number with that of the stable isotopes of the element. The atomic number determines the electron number and configuration of an element.
Electron number and their arrangement determine the chemical behavior of an element, as they determine how the element interacts and form bonds.
Select the reasons why viruses, prions, and viroids are not classified as living organisms. a. They are not able to reproduce independently. b. They are only motile in the early stages of growth. c. They do not use energy for metabolism of any kind. d. Their virulence is maintained by non-living cultures.
Answer: Viruses, prions, and viroids are not classified as living organisms because they are not able to reproduce independently, and they do not use energy for metabolism of any kind. Option A and C
Explanation:
Viruses, prions and viroids are not classified as living organisms because they are not made out of cells, they are not able to reproduce independently, and they do not use energy for metabolism of any kind.
The correct functions of your lungs contribute to the normal pH level of between 7.35 and 7.45 in your blood. If your lungs do not exchange and remove carbon dioxide from your blood, the blood pH will change. A reading of pH 6.4 of your blood indicates:A. no health risk, as part of normal pH changes in your body that in this case bring it closer to neutral pH.B. a health problem due to the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) being 10X higher than normal in your body.C. a health problem due to the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) being 2X higher than normal.D. a health problem due to the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) being 2X higher than normal in your body.E. a health problem due to the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) being 10X higher than normal in your body.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
The lung not being not been able to exchange and remove the carbon dioxide created a health problem due to the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) being 10X being higher than in normal body. Although the difference is just about 1, it will result increase hydrogen ion concentration 10 times, similarly an increase or decrease in pH from 4 to 2 will give rise to 100 times increase in hydrogen ion concentration. It can equally be applied to hydroxyl in concentration.
Complete the sentences with the correct terms. If one plant cell sends a signal to another plant cell by passing a small molecule to that cell through the plasmodesmata, this would be referred to as signaling. After a big meal, in those individuals who do not have Type I diabetes, the pancreas secretes insulin, which circulates through the body and binds to receptors on various cell types to signal to those cells that the body is in the "fed state." This is an example of Neurons secrete neurotransmitters that bind to target cells in the local environment and induce a response. While this is an example of paracrine signaling, it is more specifically referred to as During an allergic response, histamines are released by mast cells. These histamines bind to receptors on cells in the local environment only. This is an example of .
Explanation:
A. direct contact
Also known as juxtacrine signalling where cells in contact are next to each other. Here in this question plasmodesmata which acts as a channel through which molecules move in and out of nearby cells is an example of direct contact signalling.
B. endocrine signalling
In this signalling, signal is sent from one cell to other cells which is far away from the cell. The signal will be in a steady state. Insulin is secreted from Beta cells of pancreas to other target cells through blood. So, insulin secretion is an example for endocrine signalling.
C. synaptic signalling
The junction between nerve cells where transmission of signals is called synapse. And the paracrine signalling that occurs among the neuron cells can be specifically called as synaptic signalling.
D. paracrine signalling
If cells release signals and is passed to the local environment or immediate surrounding areas it is called paracrine signalling. The clue is itself in the question "cells on local environment only". So this histamine signalling to other cells follows paracrine signalling
A bunionectomy is a hallux ____ correction.A needle biopsy is a way of obtaining a piece of tissue out of the body by excision of the tissue. It can be examined under a microscope by a pathologist. Because this biopsy is performed through the skin, it is called a percutaneous biopsy.
Answer:
Valgus.
Explanation:
Bunion may be defined as the joint enlargement at the big toe. The bunionectomy may be defined as the surgical procedure to remove the bunion.
The hallux valgus is corrected in the bunionectomy. This is a type of deformity involve in the functional disability of the foot and pain in the lower part of the body. This correction is important as it might cause problem in the individual and excess pain in the foot.
Thus, the answer is valgus.
This popular drug alters consciousness by blocking the reuptake of dopamine and increases its release, and in the long term, it can cause considerable damage throughout the brain and body.
A. marijuana
B. MDMA
C. meth
D. heroin
Answer: Meth
Explanation:
Meth is a stimulant that affects the "Pleasure Reward Pathway" by altering the reuptake of the neurotransmitter dopamine, consequently leaving an excess dopamine in the synapse. It also increases the activity of the dopamine synthesizing enzyme Tyrosine Hydrolase, thus ensuring continuous release.
After suffering an accidental brain injury, Kira has difficulty walking in a smooth, coordinated manner. It is likely that she has suffered damage to her:
Answer: Kira has difficulty in walking in smooth coordinated manner because she has suffered injury to the cerebellum.
Explanation:
Cerebellum is a part of the brain situated inferior to cerbrum and posterior to pons. It receives sensory information and converts it into motor responses. Motor coordination is when subsequent parts of the same movement, or the movements of several limbs or body parts are combined in a manner that is well timed, smooth, and efficient. Cerebellum coordinates voluntary motor movements resulting in smooth coordinated muscular activities. Injury to cerebellum causes its loss of function which in return causes
1) loss of coordinated movements
2) inability to perform alternate rapid movements
3) movement tremors
4) staggering wide based gait
Kira likely damaged her cerebellum, as this part of the brain regulates fine motor control and coordination. Damage can lead to ataxia, characterized by unsteady, uncoordinated movements.
Explanation:After suffering a brain injury and having difficulty walking in a smooth, coordinated manner, it's likely Kira has suffered damage to her cerebellum.
The cerebellum is part of the brain responsible for fine motor control, balance, and coordination. Damage to this area can result in ataxia, a type of movement disorder characterized by a lack of muscle control during voluntary movements, leading to unsteady and uncoordinated walking.
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Two parts of the Plasmodium erythrocytic cycle affect the human host in the follow ways. The________ is responsible for the clinical symptoms of malaria in one human host, and the_______ releases spores into the human's blood that make it possible for the malaria to be passed on to a_______ and then to another human.
1. a. asexual portions
b. sexual portions
2. a. sexual portion
b. a sexual portion
3. a. moosquito
b. flea
Answer:
The answer to 1. is option a. asexual portion.
The answer to 2. is option b. sexual portion.
The answer to 3. Is option a. Mosquito
Explanation:
1. The asexual portion is the stage in the Plasmodium erythrocytic cycle where the parasite develops in the erythrocytes causing accumulation of waste and toxic substances which ultimately end up in the bloodstream when the infected cells lyse. These factors acts to produce the symptoms experienced in malaria.
2. During the sexual portion of the Plasmodium cycle spores formed in the human host are released into the bloodstream which is usually picked up by an uninfected female anopheles mosquito when it takes a blood meal.
3. An infected mosquito passes the sporozoites to a new human host when it takes a blood meal and the cycle starts all over.
The mathematical symbol for period is
ОА. Т
ОВ. А
O co v
OD. f
Answer: The mathematical symbol for period is T
Explanation:
Period is the time taken for an object to complete a full cycle or revolution. Period is mathematically represented by the letter T, and is measured in seconds.
You are given a prepared slide and are told that it is a streptobacillus. Without even looking at the slide under the microscope, you know which of the following? 1. The bacteria are linked together in chains. 2. The bacteria are spherical in shape. 3. The bacteria are in grape-like clusters. 4. The bacteria are rod-shaped. 5. The bacteria are Gram-negative.
A) 1,2.
B) 1,4.
C) 2,3.
D) 2,4.
E) 1,4,5.
Answer:
1 and 4
Explanation:
Streptobacilli are linked together in chains, the bacterium is gram positive and the generally rod-shape. The genus could be aerobic ( required oxygen for their growth), falcultative anaerobe (in the absence of oxygen, they can switch to fermentation).
Using careful experimental design, Blehert and colleagues proved definitively that the fungus Geomyces destructans is the cause of white nose syndrome.
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
The scientific hypothesis may be defined as the complete explanation of any particular natural phenomena. The scientific hypothesis and theory cannot be used synonymous with each other.
The hypothesis are generally based on the observation of the particular phenomena. The Blehert and colleagues set up the experimental design for the hypothesis. This is incorrect because the hypothesis can be accepted or rejected but cannot be proven.
Thus, the answer is false.
In non-regenerating tissues or in extremely severe wounds, what is the main disadvantage of the scar tissue that replaces the lost tissue?
Answer:
It is unable to perform the functions of the lost tissue.
Excess plasma lipids in the form of cholesterol contribute to the formation of atherosclerotic plaques within blood vessel walls. Which of the following is NOT a likely consequence of such plaques?
The question is incomplete. The multiple options are as follows:
turbulent blood flow around the plaque .
increased pressure due to a loss of elasticity in the vessel wall .
more resistance to flow due to a decrease in blood vessel diameter.
All options are correct.
Answer:
All options are correct.
Explanation:
Blood is composed of the plasma and formed elements in the body. The formed elements consists of the red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.
The blood plasma consists of the proteins, antibodies and different types of chemicals. The excess level of cholesterol can cause the plaque formation that disrupt the proper blood flow. The plaque may result in the loss of elasticity and excess rigidity in the walls of blood vessels. The blood resistance flow increases and causes the lowering the diameter of blood vessels.
Thus, all given options are correct.
An interneuron may receive multiple stimuli from the same sensory neuron over a very short period of time. The firing rate of the receiving neuron is proportional to the number of signals received from the sensory neuron over time.
Answer:
This is Temporal summation
Explanation:
The basic objective of temporal summation is to merge the amplitudes of individual pre- synaptic potential with the post synaptic potential. so that the sum amplitude of the potential produced can be greater than individual amplitudes. The merged amplitudes will enable the membrane potential to reach the threshold level for generation of post synaptic action potential.
Generally, the post synaptic membrane stores charges.Thus it stores in quick succession the amplitude of the first action potential, and as this is falling, it stores that of the second , third and fourth and merged this together to reach the threshold.
Temporal summation depends on the ''time frame' between the first and second pre-synaptic potential. Because the closer they are(pre-synsptic potential) the higher the chances of storing charges in the post-synaptic membrane for Post-synaptic potential. Thus if the duration is long, membrane potential of the post -synaptic neuron will be reduce, threshold will be be reached and PSP will not be achieved
In summary temporal summation depends on the time frame of the occurrence of post-synaptic potential.
A chi-square test was performed and indicated that the observed numbers of offspring were significantly different from the expecteD. Which of the following P-values would support this conclusion?
Select one:
a. 0.536
b. 0.752
c. 0.024
d. 0.159
e. 0.995
Answer: C. 0.024
Explanation:
The pvalue 0.024 is < 5% which shows that the expected number of offspring were statistically different from expected.
Among the given options, choice c. 0.024 is the correct answer, supporting the conclusion that the observed numbers of offspring were significantly different from the expected. This is because in a chi-square test, a P-value less than 0.05 indicates a statistically significant difference.
Explanation:A chi-square test is a statistical tool used to determine if there is a significant difference between the observed and expected frequencies of events. The P-value of the chi-square test indicates the probability of obtaining the observed data if the null hypothesis is true, in which the null hypothesis assumes that there is no difference between the observed and expected quantities.
Typically, a P-value of less than 0.05 is considered statistically significant and supports the rejection of the null hypothesis. In the given options, choice c. 0.024 is the P-value that would support the conclusion that the observed numbers of offspring were significantly different from the expected, since it is less than 0.05.
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Demetri is a participant in an auditory detection study using the method of constant stimuli. He never detects the 10 unit tone. He detects the 20 unit tone 25% of the trials. He detects the 30 unit tone 50% of the trials. He detects the 40 unit tone 80% of the trials. He detects the 50 unit tone 95% of the trials. His threshold for hearing tones would be taken as the _________.
Answer:
30 unit tone
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that his threshold for hearing tones would be taken as the 30 unit tone. This is because "threshold" refers to the amount that must be exceeded for a certain result to occur or manifest. Which in this case is indicated by the 50% mark that the 30 unit tone indicates. Making it the minimum for consistency.
Sexual selection favors individuals with traits that increase their ability to obtain mates, such as mating calls in crickets. Using this example, propose a scenario where sexual selection could contribute to divergence in sympatric speciation.Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences.male(s)female(s)cool forest floorwarm forest canopyVariation in ________ calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call at the _______ and a higher-pitched call in the _______. _______ in the _______ could start to prefer _______ with lower-pitched calls, and ________ in the _________ could start to prefer _________ with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations.
Answer:
variation in male calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call at the cool forest floor and a higher-pitched call in the warm forest canopy. Females in the forest floor could start to prefer males with lower-pitched calls, and females in the canopy could start to prefer males with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations.
Adaptive radiations on archipelagos (island chains) represent some of the best-understood speciation events. Why is an ancestral species more likely to give rise to multiple descendent species on an archipelago than on an equal-sized area of mainland?A) Favorable mutations are more likely to arise on an archipelago as populations try to adapt to conditions on their specific island.B) By chance, different species will colonize different islands in a chain.C) Populations on nearby islands are more likely to be genetically isolated than populations that are equally close to one another on the mainland.
Answer:
Populations on nearby islands are more likely to be genetically isolated than populations that are equally close to one another on the mainland.
Explanation:
Adaptive radiation may be defined as the process of evolution in which the single ancestral specifies diversify to form the new multiple species. This is a kind of divergent evolution.
The adaptive radiation results in the process of speciation. The archipelago species is genetically isolated from the mainland. These species has similar characteristics that might be due to their closeness of the island to the mainland.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
What are the roles of the parasympathetic nervous system and sympathetic nervous system in maintaining everyday homeostasis?
Answer: The parasympathetic nervous system and sympathetic nervous system play opposite roles
Explanation:
To ensure a stable internal environment (homeostasis) is achieved, the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) and sympathetic nervous system (SNS) play OPPOSITE roles.
The PNS dominate during relaxed periods and stimulates the
- liver to break down glycogen
- constriction of bladder to pass out urine
- increases heartbeat
- dilate pupils etc
The SNS, in contrast dominate in times of emergency or stressful periods and do the EXACT opposite of the processes mentioned above.
Thus homeostasis is maintained
At the base of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, he identifies ______ as including the need for food and shelter.
Answer:
Physiological needs
Explanation:
Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs is a motivational theory in psychology that was propounded by Abraham Maslow. Man’s needs that drive their motivation are depicted on a pyramid shape diagram, with the most basic and fundamental needs placed at the bottom. From the bottom to the top, we have the following needs: physiological, safety, love, esteem, and lastly, self-actualization.
According to Maslow, physiological needs include food and shelter. These make up the fundamental needs that man seeks to satisfy before progressing upwards to meet other needs.
The liver plays an important role in modulating blood glucose levels by removing glucose from the blood during periods of abundance or secreting it into the blood when blood glucose concentration is low. However, the liver doesn't simply stockpile glucose. Rather, it polymerizes it into glycogen, which it can then hydrolyze back into glucose monomers as needed. Why would storage as glycogen be better than simply storing the glucose.
Answer: glycogen is insoluble in water
Explanation:
Glycogen is a better storage of glucose because Glycogen is insoluble in water thus, because of the glycosidic linkages. Storing glucose as glycogen will not upset the osmotic pressure rather than glucose which is soluble in water and if it is stored as glucose it will disturb the osmotic pressure making the solution hypertonic that will cause the cell to lyse.
The glucose from glycogen is readily mobilized and is therefore a good source of energy when needed rather than free floating glucose
The liver stores glucose as glycogen, allowing for a compact, controlled, and efficient system of glucose storage and release. After a meal, insulin promotes glucose conversion to glycogen for storage, and when blood sugar levels decrease, the liver converts glycogen back into glucose.
Explanation:The liver stores glucose as glycogen, a polymer of glucose, rather than as free glucose for several important reasons. First, glycogen is a more soluble and compact way to store glucose making it more space-efficient than storing individual glucose molecules. Second, the conversion of glucose to glycogen and back, through processes known as glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, allows for a more controlled release of glucose when it is needed. Additionally, glycogen stabilizes blood glucose levels by releasing glucose when blood glucose concentration is low and storing it when the concentration is high.
After a meal, blood glucose levels increase, stimulating the pancreas's production of insulin which promotes glucose uptake by liver hepatocytes and other cells. Inside these cells, glucose is converted into glucose-6-phosphate and then stored as glycogen for future energy needs. If blood sugar levels drop, the glycogen is hydrolyzed back into glucose and released back into the blood. This process allows for the maintenance of stable blood glucose levels, providing a steady supply of energy for body cells.
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Most eukaryotic cells contain mitochondria, but a few single-celled eukaryotic organisms found in oxygen-free environments do not. Which of the observations led biologists to reject the hypothesis that these mitochondria-free eukaryotes evolved before the endosymbiotic event that established mitochondria in other eukaryotes?
Answer:
Their nuclear genome contained relics of mitochondrial genes
Explanation:
Mitochondrion is a double membrane bound organelle that is found in most eukaryotic organism whose main function is to produce or generate energy. The mitochondria has DNA thus it is passed exclusively from mother to offspring.
It is hypothesized that it exists inside the cell after an endosymbiotic event
Since their nuclear genome contains relics of mitochondrial genes, biologists rejected the hypothesis that they evolved before the endosymbiotic event.
A 1 ml sample of culture liquid contained 1000 viable bacterial cells. You serially diluted it twice, performing 10-fold or 1/10 dilutions into a final volume of 1 ml each time. As a result you have three tubes with 100, 10-1, or 10-2 of diluted culture. How many total cells are in the 1 ml of your 10-2 dilution tube?
Answer:
there are 10 viable bacterial cells in 1 ml in the 1/100 dilution tube
Explanation:
in 1ml there is 1000 viable bacterial cells → diluted with 9 ml of solvent (10 ml in total)→ 1000 viable bacterial cells in 10 ml (fist tube)
now we take 1 ml of the first tube into the second empty tube → has 1000/10 = 100 viable bacterial cells on 1 ml → diluted with 9 ml of solvent (10 ml in total)→ 100 viable bacterial cells in 10 ml (second tube)
then we take 1 ml of the second tube into the third empty tube → has 100/10 = 10 viable bacterial cells in 1 ml → diluted with 9 ml of solvent (10 ml in total)→ 10 viable bacterial cells in 10 ml (third tube)
therefore there are 10 viable bacterial cells in 1 ml in the 1/100 dilution tube
Arrange the events in the stimulation of heart muscle in order from earliest (1) to latest (5). Note that this question does not list every step in the pathway, but the steps presented should be arranged in order.
Answer:
1) Pacemaker impulse generation.
2)AV node impulse conduction
3) AV bundle impulse conduction.
4) Bundle branches conduction.
5) Purkinjie fibres impulse conduction.
Explanation:
The cardiac conduction has following components.
1)SA node is the heart pacemaker in the right upper quadrant of heart. It generates electrical impulses and these impulses then move through atria and AV node to the Purkinjie fibres.
2) The impulses reach AV node. It controls heart rate. It serves as electrical relay station which slows the electrical current sent by SA node before the signals has passed to ventricles.
3) AV bundle is continuation is AV node and it transmits impulse from AV node to the Purkinjie fibres.
4) Electricle impulses from bundle of his passes through bundle branches (right and left ) to Purkinjie fibres.
5)Purkinjie fibres take the impulses from the bundle branches to the myocardium of ventricles.
Robert and Stephanie are married; both have achondroplasia. Each always knew that they would only marry someone with achondroplasia. This type of choice can disturb Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and is an example of what?
Answer:The gene Y 11 is only partially dominant over y 11 ; thus heterozygote Y 11 y 11 plant has ...
Explanation:they have it i their genes
Over the course of a month, which of the following is most likely to describe an appropriate flow unit for a process analysis of a hospital?
A) The number of physicians
B) The number of beds
C) The square footage of the building
D) The number of patients
Answer:
The correct option is D) the number of patients
Explanation:
The number of patients who arrive in a hospital to get treated will determine the flow unit of the hospital. The more facilities and positive environment a hospital will have, the more will be the patients who arrive in that hospital. Hence, if we want to check how the working staff of a hospital is, we should look for the number of patients who visit the hospital. A hospital which has a positive environment and more facilities will attract more number of patients.
Three populations of crickets look very similar, but the males have courtship songs that sound different. What function would this difference in song likely serve if the populations came in contact?
A) a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism
B) a temporal reproductive isolating mechanism
C) a gametic reproductive isolating mechanism
D) a postzygotic isolating mechanism
Answer:
Answer is A. a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism.
Explanation:
A behavioral isolation mechanism can be described or explained as a mechanism whereby , mating rituals or signals of species of an organism are different from one another , in order to prevent interbreeding or interest in courtship among them.
In this case , the organisms in the population may be similar, and have the tendency of interbreeding, but , because of their different mating or courtship signals, the interbreeding won't be possible.
This difference in song likely serve if the populations came in contact due to function - A) a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism
Behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism
Species are reproductively isolated by various mechanisms, one of which is due to the behavior. Singing is a mating call if the song is different mating will not happen and it is termed as a behavioral isolating mechanism for reproduction.
Temporal isolation is with respect to the time when different species mate during a different time. Postzygotic, zygotes become infertile after fusion. Gamete isolation two different gametes don't fuse and hence no formation of zygote.
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Listed below are four adaptations of terrestrial vertebrates. Which is a characteristic only of truly terrestrial animals with no need to return to water at any stage of the life cycle?
1. tetrapod locomotion
2. hearts with more than two chambers
3. lungs
4. amniotic eggs
5. All of these are essential for a completely terrestrial existence
Answer: Amniotic eggs
Explanation:
Amniotes are the characteristic feature of tetrapod vertebrates comprising the birds, mammals and reptiles. The amniotes lay their eggs on the land and retain the fertilized egg inside the mother.
They are differentiated from the from the organism which lay eggs in water. Anamniotes are the organism which are specialized to live in water and they cannot survive on land.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 4
The production of amniotic eggs is a characteristic exclusive to truly terrestrial animals with no need to return to water at any lifecycle stage. This feature helps in moisture conservation, crucial for life on land. Other listed adaptations are also observed in some aquatic species.
Explanation:The characteristic exclusive to truly terrestrial animals with no need to return to water at any lifecycle stage is the production of amniotic eggs. Amniotic eggs contain a specialized structure called amnion, which helps in the conservation of moisture, a critical characteristic required for life on land. Even though tetrapod locomotion, hearts with more than two chambers, and lungs are adaptations that help in survival on land, they are also observed in some aquatic animals. For example, frogs have lungs and tetrapod locomotion but need water for their reproduction. Therefore, out of the listed options, only the amniotic eggs are characteristics strictly tied to terrestrial life.
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Secretin is released in response to A. gastrin B. bolus C. hydrocholoric acid in chyme D. carbohydrates E. proteins
Answer:
The answer is optio C. hydrocholoric acid in chym
Explanation:
Secretin is a digestive hormone that regulates gastric acid secretion and pH level in the duodenum. It is produced in the upper part of the small intestine and released in response to hydrochloric acid in the stomach and duodenum.