Suppose that exposure to a chemical mutagen results in a change in the sequence that alters the 5' end of intron 1 (I₁). What might occur?
a. loss of the gene product
b. loss of E₁
c. premature stop to the mRNA
d. inclusion of I1 in the mRNA
e. exclusion of E2

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

d. inclusion of I1 in the mRNA

Explanation:

Introns are any nucleotide sequence within the gene that is non-coding and it is usually removed  by RNA splicing.

When an RNA transcript is made, it is considered as pre-mRNA. The pre-RNA  contains both the introns and the exons. For it to mature into mRNA, the introns should be spliced and the exons are joined together to form the mRNA.

A mutation might result to the intron I1 not getting spliced hence it will be included in the mRNA.


Related Questions

Bodies of water tend to moderate climate because _____.A)the hydrogen bonding in water gives it a high specific heatB)water has a high heat of vaporizationC)the hydrogen bonding in water causes it to be cohesiveD)water is always cooler than the nearby landmassesE)All of the listed responses are correct.

Answers

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

The bodies of water on earth is responsible controlling the climate.This is because water has different qualities.

The water has hydrogen bonding in it which provides high specific heat which  retains heat in the water which is useful for the aquatic animals.

The water has high rate of vaporization due to which different components can be easily separated from the water.

It is cohesive in nature which allows the water to remain in such state for a longer period of time. The water is always cooler than the surrounding environment so as to maintain the temperature around water.

A woman in her 60s is rushed to the emergency department (ED) after having lost consciousness at a Singing Christmas Tree event. The emergency medical technician (EMT) reports that in addition to losing consciousness, the woman was tachycardic (~100 bpm), warm to the touch and diaphoretic (sweaty). During the physical exam, the patient reported that she had not been feeling well lately, but was not taking medications, had no recent surgeries, and has not been diagnosed with anything. As time passed she slowly became a little more coherent and her heartrate began to normalize, but she suddenly vomited on the floor. Rapid blood tests reveal hypoglycemia (reduced blood glucose).What is wrong with the patient?A. she forgot to eatB. she walked to the concert and was badly out of shapeC. she had a tumor causing over-secretion of insulinD. she was taking over-the-counter supplements

Answers

Final answer:

The woman's symptoms and blood test indicating hypoglycemia suggest she may have a tumour like insulinoma, which leads to over-secretion of insulin and reduced levels of blood glucose.

Explanation:

Based on the presented symptoms and the result of the rapid blood test, which showed hypoglycemia (low blood sugar), the patient might be suffering from a condition like an insulinoma. Insulinoma is a type of tumor that causes over-secretion of insulin, as suggested by C. This condition can cause an excessive amount of insulin to be released, causing diminished glucose in the blood. The initial symptoms of hypoglycemia may often include feeling unwell, tiredness, and confusion. The later stages may include tachycardia (increased heart rate), sweating (diaphoresis), and being warm to the touch. A sudden loss of consciousness can also occur. If the patient began to feel better after some time, it might have been because her blood glucose levels started to recover naturally, but vomiting can be another symptom of severe hypoglycemia.

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In a population of snails, 64% are found to have a coil pattern determined by the dominant allele "C." Calculate the frequency of the recessive snails in the population, as well as the frequencies of the heterozygous and homozygous dominant snails. Also, what is the frequency of the coil "C" allele, and the recessive noncoil pattern allele "c"?

Answers

Answer and Explanation:

Data:

64% of snails in the population are found to have a coil pattern determined by the dominant allele "C".

This 64% of the population is composed of individuals with genotype CC and Cc. This percentage equals a frequency of 0.64.

36% of the population is composed of homozygote individuals expressing the recessive trait, cc. This percentage equals a genotypic frequency of 0.36.

If CC=p² and cc=q², then:

cc=q²=0,36

√cc=√0.36=0.6

c=0.6

0.6 is the allelic frequency for the recessive trait.

Considering that the sum of frequencies of the dominant allele plus the recessive allele equals one, then  C + c = 1.

If we know the frequency of the recessive allele c, but not the frequency of the dominant allele, we can obtain it by clearing the equation. This is  

      C + c = 1

      C + 0.6 = 1

      1 - 0.6 = C

      1 - 0.6 = 0.4

So the frequency of the dominant allele, C is 0.4.

The genotypic frequency of the heterozygous is 2pq=2Cc=2x0.4x0.6= 0.48

So the genotyic frequency for the heterozygous is 0.48

So, up to now, we have:

64% of the population is composed of individuals with genotype CC and Cc. This percentage equals a frequency of 0.64.36% of the population is composed of homozygote individuals for the recessive trait, cc. This percentage equals the genotypic frequency for the recessive trait, 0.36. The allelic frequency for the recessive allele is 0.6The allelic frequency for the dominant alelle is 0.4The dominant genotypic frequency is 0.16The heterozygous genotypic frequency is 0.48The proportion of individuals expressing the dominant trait is 0.16 + 0.48 = 0.64 = 64%  

The changing aspects of an individual’s sexual attitudes, behaviors, feelings, and roles can be described by the term ________. a. sexual maturation. b. sexual life cycle. c. psychosexual development. d. psychophysiological development.

Answers

Answer:

Option C, Psychosexual Development

Explanation:

Freud has proposed five stages in his theory and each stage is associated with a satisfaction drive or instinct i.e associated with different parts of body. In his theory, a child between the ages of 0 to 1 year, sense everything by putting it in his/her mouth. This gives satisfaction to the child. When he/she grows and his/her age lies within the age bracket of 1 to 3 years, a child develops an ego against things opposing his/her instinct which is in general resolved through potty training. Between the age of 3 to 6 years, child develops feelings of jealousy, attraction, rivalry and fear. In the latency stage i.e from 6 years to up till puberty, a child focuses on developing new skill sets; play with children of same gender etc.  

And in the last stage i.e from puberty to adult hood, a child experience adolescent attractions such as attraction towards opposite sex, love, relationship etc.

Hence, option C is correct

Answer:

Psychosexual development.

Explanation:

Freud was the famous psychologists and proposed different theories to explain the psychology of the humans. Freud also gave the psychoanalytic and psychosexual theory in psychology.

The psychosexual development includes the different stages of the sexual development that promotes libido in humans. The individual can show differences in the feeling, behavior, attitude and the psychical changes are also observed during the psychosexual development.  

Thus, the answer is option (c).

If phospholipid-like molecules in an alien species had charged tails and uncharged heads, how would these molecules be arranged in alien cell membranes, assuming that the cells and their surroundings are aqueous in the aliens?

Answers

Answer:

The arrangement of those molecules would be contrary of the living earth cells membranes, heads on the inside and tails on the outside.

Explanation:

The alien version of phospholipid molecules would favor the membranes to be arranged in a way that the head of the molecules would be faced each other, and the tail of the molecules would be faced to the aqueous surroundings. This is explained by the fact that phospholid molecules have a hydrophilic content that present  charged groups or uncharged polar groups that can form either favorable electrostatic interactions or hydrogen bonds with water molecules. And in the case of the alien phospholipid is the tail that will be the hydrophilic content, instead of the ''earth phospholid''.

One of the most important classes of proteins is enzymes, which help speed up necessary biochemical reactions that take place inside the cell. Some of these critical biochemical reactions include building larger molecules from smaller components (such as occurs during DNA replication or synthesis of microtubules) and breaking down larger molecules into smaller components (such as when harvesting chemical energy from nutrient molecules). Whatever the cellular process may be, it is almost sure to involve proteins. Just as the cell’s genome describes its full complement of DNA, a cell’s ______________ is its full

Answers

Answer:

Whatever the cellular process may be, it is almost sure to involve proteins. Just as the cell’s genome describes its full complement of DNA, a cell’s proteome is its full complement of proteins.

Explanation:

Proteome serves as the repository of proteins for the DNA that stores the most crucial information regarding the structure, build, functioning, etc., of the entire body. Thus, the cellular processes that happen within our body cannot taken place in the absence of proteins.

Refer to Animation: Base Pairing and Stacking. When we consider the orientations of the two strands of DNA that make up a double helix, we see that they are:

Answers

When we consider the orientations of the two strands of DNA that make up a double helix, we see that they are:

A. parallel.

B. antiparallel.

C. mirror images.

Answer:

B. antiparallel.

Explanation:

A single DNA strand has two distinct ends. These are the 3' and 5' ends. At the 3' end, the 3' OH of the pentose sugar is present freely and is not involved in phosphodiester bond. The 5' end of DNA has a free phosphate group. A DNA double helix has two DNA strands. These two DNA strands of a double helix are anti-parallel in nature. This means that the 3' end of one DNA strand is present opposite to the 5' end of another DNA strand.

In some individuals, vegetables such as _____ appear to "turn off" genes that promote the oxidative stress and inflammation that can damage DNA.

Answers

Answer:

Answer is Cabbage.

Explanation:

It should be noted that the turning on and off of the genes is known as the gene regulation. And this process is considered to be very important because it helps the cell to react quickly or promptly to the changes in the environment.

Oxidative stress usually occurs when there is imbalance the free radicals production  and the ability of the body to fight against their damaging effects or possibly repair their damaging effects. While inflammation is considered to be the reddening or swollen occurring in some parts of the body.

In this aspect, cabbage , as an example of vegetable help to turn-off the genes, i.e prevent the genes that can cause the oxidative stress or inflammation from performing their damaging activities.

What is the difference in the adaptation of a sled dogs (such as a Husky) thick coat of hair to help it withstand the cold temperatures of Arctic winters and a dog that adapts to cold temperatures in the fall by growing a thickened coat? The adaptation of the sled dog best describes adaptation at the ____________ level while the dog exposed to seasonal colder temperatures has _____________.
A. Regional; natural selection at the individual level
B. Individual; physiological modifications at the population level
C. Population; physiological modifications at the individual level
D. Species; natural selection at the population level
E. Ecosystem; physiological modifications at the individual level
Asked by Lola, Last updated: Jan 15, 2020

Answers

The adaptation of the sled dog best describes adaptation at the Population level while the dog exposed to seasonal colder temperatures has physiological modifications at the individual level.

Explanation:

Adaptations are the special characteristic of animals and plants necessary for their survival in a particular climate. Sledge dogs are not pet and also does not come under wild animals category. These animals change their characteristics physically to survive in a particular weather.

Sledge dogs changes their fur, blood circulation, tongue, feet  and tail to survive in winter.

The fur in the sledge dog has two coats. This helps them to adapt to extreme cold conditions. The fur in the outermost layer helps in expelling water. This will provide dryness to the dog. The fur that is the the next layer acts as an insulator and prevents the dog skin to lose heat. Thus, this adaptation describes the adaptation at population level and physical changes that its makes in its individual body to survive in cold temperatures.

Researchers have found that nearly twice as many of the neural connections made in an infant's brain will ever be used. The unused connections will be ________.

Answers

Answer:

Pruned

Explanation:

Whenever there are extra synapses present in the brain that are no longer in use then the brain tends to eliminate these connections and this is termed as synaptic pruning .During this process there is decay of the dendrites as well as the axons .The process typically occurs at the peak in the period between early childhood and the onset of puberty however it begins at the time of birth and continues upto the early 20s. Further pruning is affected by the learning mechanism and the influence of the environment.One thing to be noted is that in pruning the death of the neurons does not occur however there is simple retraction of the synaptic connections.

Assume that an organism exists in which crossing over does not occur, but that all other processes associated with meiosis occur normally. Consider how the absence of crossing over would affect the outcome of a single meiotic event. Which of the following statements would be true if crossing over did not occur?

Answers

Answer:

The options are missing, they are:

a.The daughter cells of meiosis I would be diploid, but the daughter cells of meiosis II would be haploid.

b.The two sister chromatids of each replicated chromosome would no longer be identical.

c.The four daughter cells produced in meiosis II would all be different.

d.The two daughter cells produced in meiosis I would be identical.

e.There would be less genetic variation among gametes.

f.Independent assortment of chromosomes would not occur.

The correct answer is E, there would be less genetic variation among gametes.

Explanation:

Crossing-over or also called recombination is a phenomenon peculiar to meiosis alone. Meiosis is that kind of division that is employed by sexual-reproducing organisms to produce gamete/sex cells. Crossing-over is a process that may or may not occur, if it does, it occurs in prophase of meiosis I, and it involves exchanging equal chromosomal segments between two non-sister chromatids or homologous chromosomes. Crossing-over is the means by which sexually reproducing organisms use to bring about genetic variation among their species.

It is worthy to note that the non-occurrence of crossing-over does not affect the number of chromosomes as a normal meiotic division will always yield haploid gametes right from meiosis I.

Since crossing-over did not occur, the homologous chromosomes (similar but non-identical chromosomes) will separate into each cell during meiosis I, meaning that each cell will have chromosomes that are either maternal or paternal. This will reduce the chance of genetic variation occuring among species.

A fatty acid contains primarily carbon and hydrogen atoms, and its hydrocarbon tail is very hydrophobic. What kind of interaction can occur between hydrocarbon tails of fatty acids?

Answers

Answer:

Hydrophobic interaction.

Explanation:

On the basis of the polarity and the dissolution of water, the molecules can be classified into the hydrophilic and hydrophobic molecules. The hydrophobic molecules can easily dissolve in the non polar solvents.

The hydrophobic interaction is important that exist between the non polar molecules. The hydrophobic interaction plays an important role in the biological system as the lipids of the cell membrane are assisted together with the hydrophobic interaction. The hydrocarbon tail is non polar molecules that contains hydrophobic interaction within it.

Thus, the correct answer is hydrophobic interaction.

Testing your ability to recall information you have just studied improves your long-term retention of that information. Psychologists have referred to this as ___________.
A) SQ3R.
B) introspection.
C) the testing effect.
D) positive psychology.

Answers

Answer: The testing effect  

Explanation:

The testing effect can be generally used to find out that long-term memory is generally increased when a bit of the (adapting)learning period is spend towards retrieving what is to be retained in the brain.

This effect is often referred as practice testing or retrieval practice. This is required to test what is retained in the brain which was studied over a long time back.

This effect is known as the testing effect.

Final answer:

The concept that describes the improvement in long-term retention due to actively recalling studied information is known as C) the testing effect, which is part of effective learning strategies and metacognition.

Explanation:

The phenomenon where testing your ability to recall information you have just studied improves your long-term retention of that information is referred to as the testing effect. This concept is grounded in the idea that retrieval is one of the most powerful enhancements to learning, as highlighted in the work of Roediger and Butler (2013). It is more beneficial than simply reviewing the material because it involves the active act of getting information out of long-term memory storage and back into conscious awareness. This self-testing not only helps you to understand if you truly know the material but also makes learning more durable over time. In contrast to becoming overconfident from merely reviewing notes, the testing effect provides a more accurate assessment of one's knowledge, tapping into metacognition.

The various parts of the endomembrane system serve different functions in the cell. In this activity, you will identify the roles of each part of the endomembrane system. Match each function to the appropriate bin.1. protein synthesis2. protein modification and sorting 3. macromolecule digestion4. lipid synthesis 5. autophagy 6. cisternal maturation 7. calcium ion storage8. poison detoxification a. smooth ERb. rough ER c. Golgi apparatus d. lysosomes

Answers

Answer:

1. protein synthesis - (b) rough ER

2. protein modification and sorting - (c) Golgi apparatus

3. macromolecule digestion - (d) lysosomes

4. lipid synthesis - (a) smooth ER

5. autophagy - (d) lysosomes

6. cisternal maturation - (c) Golgi apparatus

7. calcium ion storage - (a) smooth ER

8. poison detoxification - (a) smooth ER

Explanation:

Rough ER or rough endoplasmic reticulum with the help of ribosomes is responsible for protein synthesis and their subsequent transport to various other parts of the cell that is why both these organelles are also known as protein factory.

Soon after proteins are synthesized with the help of rough ER, they are transported to another network of organelle known as golgi apparatus. In golgi apparatus, the nascent protein is further modified and sorted. Modification and sorting of proteins help in identifying their final destination i.e. whether the protein is meant for mitochondria or plasma membrane or some other organelle. Maturation of cisternae also takes place in golgi apparatus.

Smooth ER or smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for lipid synthesis, storage of calcium ions and poison detoxification. Most of the steroid hormones, triglycerols etc. are synthesized in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Smooth ER also stores calcium ions so that whenever they are required they can be sequestered back into the cytosol. Poison detoxification occurs in the smooth ER of liver because the enzymes present in the liver are capable of converting such hydrophobic substances into hydrophilic substances so that they could be easily secreted out of the body.

Lysosome is the organelle which is responsible for macromolecule digestion and autophagy. Lysosomes have very low pH and a lot of hydrolyzing enzymes which can easily digest macromolecules. Autophagy is a self degradable process in which damaged cells are eaten or destroyed by lysosomes so that their macromolecules could be broken down into their monomers so that they can be reused by our body.

Final answer:

The endomembrane system includes the rough and smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER), Golgi apparatus, and lysosomes each with specific functions such as protein and lipid synthesis, protein modification and sorting, autophagy, and poison detoxification.

Explanation:

The endomembrane system of a cell consists of different parts that perform specific functions. Here is the correct match between each function and its corresponding part:

Protein synthesis - rough ER Protein modification and sorting - Golgi apparatus Macromolecule digestion - lysosomes Lipid synthesis - smooth ER Autophagy - lysosomes Cisternal maturation - Golgi apparatus Calcium ion storage - smooth ER Poison detoxification - smooth ER

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A congenital condition of immunodeficiency that results from defective development of the pharyngeal pouch system and presents with cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcemia is ______

Answers

Answer: DiGeorge syndrome (DGS)

Explanation: It is caused by abnormal development of certain cells during fetal development.

It is a primary immunodeficiency disorder caused by the mutation in chromosome number 22.

When conductors with _______ charge touch, electrons flow from the object that has a greater negative charge to the object that has less negative charge in the process of ______

Answers

When conductors with negative charge touch, electrons flow from the object that has a greater negative charge to the object that has less negative charge in the process of conduction.

Explanation:

Electronic conductivity is defined as the exchange of charges between two bodies that are conductors by means of exchange and sharing of electrons between themselves.

Electrons are actually responsible for the existence of negative charges in the electricity, and presence of electrons make a body negatively charged and absence of electrons make them positive charged.

When a more negatively charged body touches a less negativity charged body, the electrons from more negatively charged body flows to the body with less negatively charged one, because of more electron density.

Final answer:

When conductors with opposite charge touch, electrons flow from the object that has a greater negative charge to the object that has less negative charge in the process of charge transfer.

Explanation:

When conductors with opposite charge touch, electrons flow from the object that has a greater negative charge to the object that has less negative charge in the process of charge transfer. Conductors are materials in which charges can move freely. If a conductor with excess negative charge comes into contact with a conductor with excess positive charge, electrons will flow from the conductor with more negative charge to the conductor with less negative charge until the charges are in equilibrium.

Using microscope to look at a slide prepared with a stain you observe a cell with a clear inner compartment within the cell. This is cell is most likely a(n) ____________.

Answers

Answer: An archaeon

Explanation: Archaeon is a member of the prokaryotes (organisms with false nucleus). They have unusual shape. They share close resemblance in cell structure with bacteria. Their cytoplasm are spaced with organelles in spatial arrangements.

Water-soluble hormones affect target cells by binding to __________. View Available Hint(s) Water-soluble hormones affect target cells by binding to __________. adenylate cyclase cytoplasmic receptors plasma membrane receptors cAMP protein kinases

Answers

Answer:

plasma membrane receptors

Explanation:

Water-soluble hormones such as amine and peptide hormones cannot cross the hydrophobic core of the plasma membranes of their target cells. Therefore, these hormones have cell surface receptors present on the surface of their target cells. Binding of water-soluble hormones to their respective plasma membrane receptors on the target cells stimulates the generation of a second messenger which in turn brings about the desired changes in the cells.

For example, binding of some water-soluble hormones to their plasma membrane receptors stimulates the formation of cAMP inside the target cells. The cAMP serves as the second messenger and activates the protein kinases which in turn activate cellular proteins involved in the generation of the desired response.

Final answer:

Water-soluble hormones bind to plasma membrane receptors, which sets off a cascade involving the activation of adenylate cyclase and the production of cAMP, leading to cellular responses through protein kinases.

Explanation:

Water-soluble hormones affect target cells by binding to plasma membrane receptors. When a water-soluble hormone binds to its receptor, it activates a G-protein that is associated with the receptor on the cell membrane. This then activates an enzyme called adenylate cyclase, which converts ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP), the second messenger. cAMP activates enzymes called protein kinases, which in turn phosphorylate various cellular proteins, leading to the desired cellular response.

Lynx feed on rabbits, and the growth curves for these two species fluctuate together. This relationship is an example of a(n) Select one:

a. S-shaped growth curve.
b. J-shaped growth curve.
c. irregular fluctuations. tightly linked cycle.

Answers

Answer:

Option D, tightly linked

Explanation:

The population of both rabbit and Lynx is tightly linked which means that if the population of rabbit is affected negatively, the population of Lynx will also get affected negatively.  

In general, Lynx gets its nutrition from rabbit by feeding on them when they are in sufficient number. When the rabbits become scarce, Lynx starts feeding on alternative food sources such as mice, carrion etc. but these food type cannot  provide sufficient nourishment to the  Lynx and hence the population of Lynx also reduces as some of them die because of starvation while the remaining move to different areas in search of food.  

Hence, option D  is correct

Final answer:

The growth curves for lynx and rabbits that fluctuate together represent predator-prey dynamics, with lynx being the predator and rabbits the prey. This tightly linked cycle of population growth and decline represents a classic example of predator-prey interaction, best exemplified by the historical cycling patterns of lynx and snowshoe hares in Northern Ontario.

Explanation:

The relationship wherein lynx feed on rabbits, and their growth curves fluctuate together, exemplifies predator-prey dynamics. These fluctuations are tightly linked cycles where the prey population (rabbits) increases leading to a subsequent increase in the predator population (lynx). This is followed by a decline in the prey population due to increased predation, which in turn causes a decline in the predator population due to food scarcity. Hence, the correct answer is not the S-shaped or J-shaped growth curve, nor irregular fluctuations, but rather a tightly linked cycle of respective population sizes of prey and predators.

These cycles are typically observed in wildlife population studies, such as the historical pattern of cycling between lynx and snowshoe hares in Northern Ontario, which has been documented through nearly 200 years of trapping data. The approximately 10-year cycle, with the lynx population lagging 1-2 years behind the hare population, demonstrates how interconnected and dependent these populations are on each other's numbers for their survival and growth rates.

...glutamine-glutamine-glutamine...
....serine-serine-serine......
Which of the following messenger RNA sequences could code for both of the two amino acid sequences?

Answers

Answer:

AGCAGCAGCAGC

Explanation:

Messenger RNA (mRNA) is the product of transcription, which is made by synthesizing a complementary strand of the DNA template. The mRNA is a template used to synthesis amino acids during the second process of protein synthesis (translation).

mRNA are read in the ribosomes in a group of three nucleotide sequences called CODON. This codon (triplet nucleotide on mRNA) specifies a particular amino acid. There are 64 possible combinations of codons in the genome for the 20 amino acids. Due to this, the genome/genetic code exhibits a phenomenon called DEGENERACY. Degeneracy is a phenomenon whereby more than one codon specifies a particular amino acid.

The possible CODONS that specify the amino acids given in the question are:

Serine: AGC, AGU, UCA, UCC, UCG, UCU

Glutamine: CAA, CAG

Hence, looking at this codons/nucleotide sequences, we would realize that combining the sequence;

AGCAGCAGCAGC; will produce a serine amino acid sequence, while skipping the first two nucleotides (A and G) and starting from nucleotide C, we will have CAG which codes for Glutamine amino acid repeated three times.

Hence, AGCAGCAGCAGC is the possible mRNA nucleotide sequence that can produce both amino acid sequence.

Final answer:

The question asks for mRNA sequences that could code for glutamine and serine. Glutamine is coded by GAA and GAG, while serine is coded by UCA, UCG, UCU, and UCC. The options given do not match these codons, so the correct mRNA sequence would be any combination of codons for glutamine and serine.

Explanation:

The student's question relates to the genetic code and how sequences of nucleotides in messenger RNA (mRNA) correspond to the amino acid sequences that make up proteins. To answer which mRNA sequences could code for the amino acid sequences of glutamine (Gln) and serine (Ser), we need to refer to the codon table that matches mRNA triplets with amino acids. Glutamine is coded by the mRNA codons GAA and GAG, while serine is coded by the mRNA codons UCA, UCG, UCU, and UCC.

None of the options provided (a. valine and isoleucine, b. asparagine and serine, c. glutamic acid and arginine, d. tryptophan and methionine) match the codons for glutamine or serine. Therefore, the correct mRNA sequence could be any combination of the codons for Gln and Ser, such as CAAGAG for a Glutamine-Glutamine-Glutamine sequence and UCUUCU for a Serine-Serine-Serine sequence.

Additionally, understanding how changes in the mRNA sequence affect amino acid sequences is critical. For example, inserting an arginine codon between certain amino acids would alter the resulting protein structure, potentially affecting its function.

Starting from a single individual, what is the size of a population of bacteria that reproduce by binary fission every 20 minutes at the end of a 2-hour time period? (Assume unlimited resources and no mortality.)
A) 6
B) 18
C) 128
D) 512
E) 1,024

Answers

Answer:

 C) 128

Explanation:

In binary fission each bacterial cell will divide into two parts.

1. Since the bacteria divides divides after every 20 min , We have to find the number of division in two hours two hour(2x60=120 min) which will be;

120÷20=6

It will undergo 6 divisions.

2. To calculate the number of bacteria at the end of 2 hours

Bacteria in the beginning x 2∧ Number of division

1× 2∧6= 128 Bacteria  

The size of a population of bacteria that reproduce by binary fission every 20 minutes starting from a single individual and lasting for 2 hours would be 64.

There are 120 minutes in a 2 hour period.

Starting at 0 minutes with 1 individual

After 20 minutes, there will be 2 individuals

After 40 minutes, there will be 4 individuals

after 60 minutes, 8 individuals

After 80 minutes, 16 individuals

After 100 minutes, 32 individuals

After 120 minutes. 64 individuals

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Two eukaryotic proteins are identical except for one domain in each protein, and these two domains are completely different from each other. Which of the following processes is most likely to have contributed to this difference?

Answers

Answer:

Alternative splicing.

Explanation:

The eukaryotes translation process requires two more step known as polyadenylation and capping. The transcription and translation occurs in the separate compartment.

The eukaryotes genome consists of both the exons as well as introns. The introns need to be excise out and exons join together in the process known as alternative splicing. This alternative splicing is responsible for the formation of the different protein.

Thus, the answer is alternative splicing.

The morphine administered to Ms. Hughes was not effective in relieving her pain; this is a sign of potential compartment syndrome.

A. True
B. False

Answers

Answer:

Answer is A. True.

Explanation:

Compartment syndrome is the condition which develop or occur through the increased pressure in the compartments or body space , most especially the legs and arms. This occur through some certain injuries like fracture, which causes bleeding in the muscle.

The only and best treatment for compartment syndrome is surgery.

In the case of Ms Hughes, she is believed to have developed a condition known as compartment syndrome,  because patient with compartment syndrome,  seem to continue to have increased pain despite the administration of morphine.And they keep complaining of unrelenting pain.

Which of the following places the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order? 1-Alcohol-acetone 2-Crystal violet 3-Safranin 4-Iodine

Answers

Answer: Gram staining is arranged in the following order;

1) Crystal violet

2) iodine

3) Alcohol-acetone

4) safranin

Explanation:

Applying primary stain to a heat fixed smear of a bacterial culture

Then you add iodine which binds the crystal violet and traps it in the cell. After you decolourise with ethanol finally counter shade with safranin

Final answer:

The correct order for the Gram stain process is: crystal violet, iodine, alcohol-acetone, and safranin. This method is crucial for classifying bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative groups.

Explanation:

The Gram Stain is a differential staining technique used to classify bacteria into two major groups: Gram-positive and Gram-negative. The correct order of the steps in this process is:

Crystal violetIodineAlcohol-acetoneSafranin

This sequence is vital. First, the bacterial smear is stained with crystal violet, then it's treated with iodine, a mordant that forms an insoluble complex with crystal violet, which can subsequently be removed with alcohol or acetone. Finally, safranin, a counterstain, is applied that stains Gram-negative bacteria.

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The speedy nervous system zips messages by way of neurotransmitters. Endocrine messages, however, are delivered more slowly because hormones travel throughA. myelinated neurons.B. the bloodstream.C. glial cells.D. interneurons.

Answers

Answer:

B) the bloodstream

Explanation:

In multicellular organisms, the cells of the organisms are interconnected and communicate with each other through the secreted chemicals. When the communication takes place between distant cells then the body releases the chemicals called hormones.

The hormones reach distant sites through the bloodstream and act on the target site. This signaling communication is known as the endocrine signaling in which the endocrine glands secrete the chemicals into the bloodstream.

Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.

Final answer:

Endocrine messages are slower than nervous system messages as hormones travel through the bloodstream, whereas neural messages use rapid electrical and chemical signals.

Explanation:

The nervous system transmits messages rapidly through electrical signals and chemical neurotransmitters, with the fastest nerve impulses reaching speeds over 100 meters per second. In contrast, endocrine messages are delivered more slowly because hormones travel through the bloodstream. Unlike the immediate action of neurotransmitters which act locally and quickly, hormones are secreted into the blood by endocrine glands and are broadcast to all cells in the body, acting over a longer distance and time frame to induce cellular response.

On Christmas morning, 3-year-old Billy opens a gift from his mother and finds a new sweater. Disappointed that it is not a toy, Billy frowns and throws the sweater aside in front of his mother with no regard for her feelings. Billy is demonstrating _________.
A. centration.B. egocentric thought.C. conservation.D. intuitive thought.

Answers

Answer: egocentric thought

Explanation:

he is only thinking of his self

Final answer:

(Option B) Egocentric thought is demonstrated when a child cannot consider another person's perspective, common in the preoperational stage of development.

Explanation:

The concept demonstrated by Billy is egocentric thought, which is defined as the inability to take the perspective of another person, common in young children during the preoperational stage of cognitive development.

Children displaying egocentric thought tend to think that everyone sees, thinks, and feels just as they do, without considering others' perspectives. An example of egocentric thought can be seen when a child gives a gift that they like assuming the recipient will also like it, without considering the recipient's preferences.

The amount of the Earth’s Net Primary Productivity that human activity consumes, and the amount of the total ice-free land surface devoted to human activities_________.

Answers

Answer:

25% of the planetary primary productivity

75% of the ice-free land surface.

Explanation:

The researches and various studies have observed and analyzed that the  amount of the Earth’s Net Primary Productivity that human activity consumed is almost 25% of the planetary primary productivity

and,

Out of all the land available on the planet Earth, Human land-uses occupies about 75% of the ice-free land surface.

Answer:

The net primary productivity may be defined as the productivity rate lefts after the gross primary productivity reduced from the respiration. The plants acts as the producer in the ecosystem.

The humans directly or indirectly depend on plants and other animals for their productivity. The humans activity nearly consumes around 75% from the ice-free land surface. Around 25% of the planetary primary productivity is used directly by the humans for their activity.

The molecule which distinguishes living systems from nonliving and serve as hereditary material is called __.

Answers

Answer: deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

Explanation:

DNA is the main hereditary material that distinguishes living from non-living things.

It is so because its replication i.e DNA replication can ONLY occur in the cell of a living organism. That is why even virus replicate it's DNA only in a living host not else where.

So, DNA is the answer

Which of the following would NOT increase (whole body) oxygen consumption during recovery from exercise and increase excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?
A) high blood levels of hormones (i.e., epinephrine)B) None of these answers is trueC) elevated body temperature above normalD) high intensity of exercise

Answers

Answer:

(B) None of the answers are true...

Explanation:

(A) is wrong because the high levels of epinephrine promote activation of sympathetic nervous system that'll ultimately increase oxygen consumption.

(C) Elevated temperatures of body require immediate cooling that's why breathing rate gets high and ultimately the oxygen consumption.

(D) We all know that a vigorous dose of exercise always increases your bodies oxygen consumption.

Final answer:

The answer to the question is B) None of these answers is true. All listed factors such as high blood levels of hormones, elevated body temperature, and high-intensity exercise contribute to increased excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC).

Explanation:

The question asks which factor would NOT increase oxygen consumption during recovery from exercise, otherwise known as excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC). While high blood levels of hormones like epinephrine, elevated body temperature, and high-intensity exercise all contribute to increased EPOC, none of the factors listed in the options would decrease EPOC. Hormones such as epinephrine and increased body temperature can shift the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation/disassociation curve, facilitating greater oxygen delivery and utilization. Higher intensity exercise also results in increased EPOC due to the higher demands placed on the body for energy production and recovery. Therefore, the answer is B) None of these answers is true, as all other options would increase EPOC.

Which of the following is NOT an epithelial structure?

an eccrine sweat gland
the sciatic nerve
the organ that secretes the hormone renin
the innermost wall of the urinary bladder (the lining)
The sciatic nerve

Answers

Answer:

The sciatic nerve is not an epithelial structure.

Explanation:

The sciatic nerve can be described as the largest nerve of the body. The sciatic nerve is formed when 5 nerves from the lower spine join. Hence, the sciatic nerve is not an epithelial structure. It is such long that it goes all the way from top of the leg till the foot. The sciatic nerve is involved in supplying sensations to the feet and to the skin.

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