Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of crossing over.
a. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid only in meiosis II.
b. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid only in meiosis II.
c. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis Il. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis lI
d. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis !, and remains haploid in meiosisI.
e. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis I
Answer:
c. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis II. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis II.
Explanation:
Anaphase-I of meiosis-I includes the movement of homologous chromosomes to the opposite poles of the cell. This even reduces the chromosome number to half in the daughter cells formed by the end of meiosis-I. Therefore, diploid cells become haploid by the end of meiosis-I. Since chromosomes carry DNA, a reduction in chromosome number also reduces the DNA content of the cells to half in meiosis-I.
Anaphase-II in meiosis-II separates the sister chromatids of each chromosome from each other. These sister chromatids move to the opposite poles of the cell. This event further reduces the DNA content of the cell to half but the chromosome numbers are maintained.
Therefore, a cell with 2C DNA and 2n (diploid) chromosomes form two daughter cells having "C" DNA and "n" chromosomes by the end of meiosis-I. Meiosis-II in each of these daughter cells would form a total of 4 daughter cells each having "n" chromosomes and "C" DNA content.
The DNA content is reduced by half in meiosis I and remains the same in meiosis II. The ploidy level remains the same in meiosis I and is reduced by half in meiosis II.
Explanation:Cellular DNA content and ploidy levels during meiosis I and meiosis II:During meiosis I, the DNA content is reduced by half, while the ploidy level remains the same. This is because homologous chromosomes separate, resulting in the formation of two haploid cells. In meiosis II, the DNA content remains the same, but the ploidy level is reduced to half. This is because sister chromatids separate, resulting in the formation of four haploid cells.
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A possible explanation for the effectiveness of ________ is that it may reduce depression by triggering the long-term potentiation of nerve cells.
Answer: Antidepressants
Explanation:
The effectiveness of ANTIDEPRESSANTS is best explained by how they stimulate the synapse junctions of several neurons in the body to a top frequency, thus inducing a continuous "feel-good" feeling in the patients administered such drugs.
This ability of antidepressants to sustain this "feel - good" feeling supresses depression and is known as the long-term potentiation of nerve cells.
How one lives is so far distant from how one ought to live, that he who neglects what is done for what ought to be done, sooner affects his ruin than his preservation?
Answer:
To increase the preservation of an element, it should go through all the stages as it should, which could promptly take it to its ruin phase.
This must be analyzed from the theoretical point of view, it will be worthwhile for the human to go so fast through the phases of his life, shortening the chances of subsistence or we must burn all stages in due time.
A lipopolysaccharide molecule that is released from the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria cell walls and causes the symptoms of the bacterial infection is called ________.
Answer:
It is called an Endotoxin
Explanation:
Lipopolysaccharide are large molecules found in the outer membranes of Gram-negative bacteria and it of lipids and polysaccharide. Apart from forming part of the structure of the bacteria, it protects the bacteria from chemical attacks.
Unlike exotoxins are substances such as proteins, that are secreted by the bacteria and are released outside hence causing an infection.
Endotoxins are substances that are part of the cell example is the lipopolysaccharide.dotoxins E /
Final answer:
The lipopolysaccharide molecule released from gram-negative bacteria that causes infection symptoms is called endotoxin. It includes a toxic component known as lipid A, which can lead to inflammatory responses and, if in high concentrations, endotoxic shock.
Explanation:
A lipopolysaccharide molecule that is released from the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria cell walls and causes the symptoms of the bacterial infection is called endotoxin. The lipopolysaccharide (LPS), specifically the lipid A component, is the toxic part of the molecule. During both normal replication and cell death, fragments of LPS are released, which can trigger a host's immune response. If the concentration of endotoxin is low, it may benefit the host by providing defense against infection. However, high levels of endotoxin can lead to excessive inflammation, potentially resulting in a severe drop in blood pressure, multi-organ failure, and even death, a condition known as endotoxic shock.
Darwin noted that populations produce more offspring than will survive. Why is this fact a central component of the theory of natural selection?
Answer:
Darwin is known as the father of evolution and explains the theory of the natural selection. He explains the relationship between the evolution and the natural selection.
According to Darwin the population with more reproductive power has high chance of fitness and adapt in the environment. This is because the large number of individual in the population shows large variation with the variation in the fitness when subjected to the process of natural selection.
The cellular process of creating two new DNA molecules from one original copy is called replication. Which statement is the BEST description of this process?
A) DNA opens up and RNA copies it.B) DNA opens up and completely unwinds to make two new molecules.C) DNA opens up and each strand is used as a template for a new strand.D) RNA opens up the DNA and uses each strand as a template for a new strand.
Answer:
C) DNA opens up and each strand is used as a template for a new strand.
Explanation:
DNA molecule is present in the form of a double helix. The hydrogen bonds between the two DNA strands are broken down by the enzyme helicase. This enzyme uses the energy of the hydrolysis of ATP to perform the denaturation of DNA. Breaking of hydrogen bonds separates the two DNA strands from each other. Now, each of the DNA strands serves as a template which means that its nucleotide sequence would specify the nucleotide sequence of the newly formed strand. The process is catalyzed by the enzyme DNA polymerase in a primer dependent manner.
DNA replication is a process where the DNA molecule splits open and each strand serves as a template for a new strand, producing two new molecules. This mechanism ensures that each new cell gets an exact copy of the DNA.
Explanation:The cellular process of creating two new DNA molecules from one original copy, known as DNA replication, is best described by option C) DNA opens up and each strand is used as a template for a new strand. In this process, the DNA strand splits open, forming a replication fork. Then, enzymes like DNA polymerase add nucleotides to the exposed strands following their base pairing rules, thereby creating two new identical molecules - one for each half of the fork. This ensures that each new cell has an exact copy of the DNA.
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What enzymes are produced by the pancreas and what are their functions
Answer:
Protease is the enzyme that breaks down proteins
Explanation:
The Swiss Forum for Sport Nutrition has developed a Food Pyramid for Athletes that has been scientifically validated for athletes 20–35 years old, weighing 50–85 kg, who train 5–28 hours per week. Group of answer choices False True
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The food pyramid was constructed based on age and exercise hours because nutritional need and absorption rate of digestive system differ according to age, weight and training hours.
The part of the nervous system that allows the brain to regulate digestion, heart rate, and respiration without our conscious attention is the?
Answer: The correct answer is Autonomic Nervous System
Explanation:
The autonomic nervous system are mainly involuntary i.e not under conscious control.
Also, it connects the central nervous system with the following:
- glands that regulate digestion
- smooth muscles that regulate respiration and the breathing process.
- cardiac muscles of the heart that regulate heart rate.
Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host's:______.a. antibodies. b. iron-transport proteins. c. white blood cells. d. red blood cells. e. receptors.
Answer:
The correct answer is iron-transport proteins
Explanation:
Siderophores are proteins produced by bacteria, and compete with the host's iron-transport proteins. They aim to bind and "hijack" the host's cell iron molecules for their own pathogenic cell processes
Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with a host's iron-transport proteins. They chelate iron and transport it back to the bacterial cell, outcompeting host cells for this essential nutrient. This falls under microbial pathogenesis and is a strategy bacteria use to cause disease.
Explanation:Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with a host's iron-transport proteins. These bacterial proteins have high affinity for iron, which they chelate and transport back to the bacterial cell. Iron is a vital nutrient for many biological processes including DNA replication and enzymatic activities. Through this mechanism, bacteria can outcompete host cells for this essential resource.
This question comes under the topic of microbial pathogenesis, where organisms such as bacteria adopt various strategies to cause disease in the host. These strategies often involve evasion or subversion of the host's immune system, acquisition of nutrients from the host, and so on. In this specific context, siderophores aren't directly interacting with antibodies, white blood cells, red blood cells, or receptors of the host. Instead, they are usurping the host's iron supply, thereby starving the host cells of this essential nutrient.
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Gabe's wife wakes him from his peaceful slumber to tell him she heard a noise. As he slowly gets up to investigate, his heart begins to race, his mouth is dry, and he begins to sweat. Clearly his _____ nervous system has been activated.
Answer: Clearly his SYMPATHETIC nervous system has been activated.
Explanation:
The effects of the sympathetic nervous system dominate in times of EMERGENCY or STRESS. And its effects include:
- dilation of pupils to help Gabe see sharply as he investigate
- inhibition of saliva secretion as his mouth turns dry
- acceleration of heartbeat due to fear
- stimulation of sweat glands to produce sweat.
All these show clearly that Gabe's SYMPATHETIC nervous system has been activated.
Answer:
sympathetic nervous system has been activated
The cities of Portland, Oregon, and Minneapolis, Minnesota, are at about the same latitude, but Minneapolis has much hotter summers and much colder winters than Portland. Why?A) They are not at the same exact latitude. B) The ocean near Portland moderates the temperature. C) Fresh water is more likely to freeze than salt water. D) Minneapolis is much windier, due to its location in the middle of North America
Answer:
The ocean near Portland moderates the temperature.
Explanation:
The environment of any particular area is determined by the physical conditions like temperature, pressure, the location of water bodies and vegetation near the area.
Minneapolis shows the extreme climate conditions with hot summer and extreme winters because Minneapolis is located quite far away from the ocean whereas the area that are located near the oceans and beaches have moderate climate like Portland.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Portland, Oregon, and Minneapolis, Minnesota, have different climates despite being at the same latitude due to the moderating effect of the Pacific Ocean near Portland. The ocean causes Portland to have milder temperatures both in summer and winter compared to Minneapolis which is situated further inland. option B is the correct answer .
Explanation:The cities of Portland, Oregon, and Minneapolis, Minnesota, despite being approximately at the same latitude, experience different season temperatures. The main factor contributing to this difference is the presence of the ocean near Portland. Large bodies of water like the Pacific Ocean have a moderating effect on the climate of nearby land. This is because water has a higher specific heat capacity than land, meaning it heats and cools more slowly. As a result, coastal areas near oceans tend to have milder, more moderated temperatures throughout the year when compared to inland areas. Hence, Portland summers are cooler, and winters are warmer than Minneapolis, which is situated further inland.
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Five-year-old Theresa is Christmas shopping with her mother and siblings. She looks around and realizes her mother is nowhere to be found. Theresa's _____ nervous system activates the fight-or-flight response. Theresa's mother finally comes around the corner, and Theresa is filled with relief, the result of the activation of the _____ part of her nervous system.
Answer:
1. Sympathetic
2. Parasympathetic
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system is activated when the person experiences any stress conditions. This nervous system stimulates the release of stress hormones from the adrenal gland and generates flight or fight response. There are an increased heart rate and breathing rate to increase the oxygen supply to skeletal muscles.
Once the person comes out of the stress conditions, the parasympathetic nervous system is activated which slows down the physiological responses generated by the sympathetic system. The activated parasympathetic nervous system stimulates the digestion and absorption of nutrients.
Final answer:
Theresa's sympathetic nervous system activates the fight-or-flight response. Theresa's mother finally comes around the corner, and Theresa is filled with relief, the result of the activation of the parasympathetic part of her nervous system.
Explanation:
When five-year-old Theresa realizes that her mother is nowhere to be found, her sympathetic nervous system activates the fight-or-flight response. This is an involuntary reaction that prepares the body to respond to perceived dangers by allowing access to energy reserves and heightening sensory capacity so one might either fight off a threat or run away to safety. When Theresa sees her mother and feels relief, it is the parasympathetic part of her autonomic nervous system that becomes activated to calm her down and return her body to a state of rest.
What would be the difference between a gene mutation and a chromosomal mutation?
Answer:
A gene mutation can be described as errors in the nucleotide sequence of a gene due to errors in the DNA replication process or due to any mutagen. On the other hand, a chromosomal mutation can be described as a change in the structure of a DNA or changes in the number of chromosomes.
A gene mutation occurs in a single gene whereas a chromosomal mutation will affect many genes. Hence, gene mutations will be comparatively less lethal than chromosomal mutations.
Example of gene mutation: Sickle cell anemia
Example of chromosomal mutation: Down's Syndrome
A biologist spent many years researching the rate of evolutionary change in the finch populations of a group of islands. It was determined that the average beak size (both length and mass) of finches in a certain population increased dramatically during an intense drought between 1981 and 1987. During the drought, there was a reduction in the number of plants producing thin-walled seeds.Which of the following procedures was most likely followed to determine the change in beak size?1. A few finches were trapped in 1981 and again in 1987, and their beak sizes were compared.2. The beak size in fifteen finches was measured in 1987, and the beak size in the original finches was determined by estimation.3. The beak size in a large number of finches was measured every year from 1981 to 1987.4. Finches were captured and bred in 1981, and the beak size of the offspring was measured.
Answer: 4. The beak size in a large number of finches was measured every year from 1981 to 1987
Explanation:
The answer in a way, is in the first sentence of the question. The researcher spent many years researching the rate of evolutionary change. This would require a lot of long term examination of a large sample of finches, across many many generations. Evolutionary change takes time and successive generations for natural selection to select for the favoured character trait. Seeing as the researcher was studying not just the occurrence of evolutionary change but it's rate, it is imperative that the a lot of observation and data collection be carried out along a long period of time. This type of study is called a longitudinal study.
To determine the evolution of beak size in finches during a six-year drought, the biologist likely measured beak sizes in a large number of finches every year from 1981 to 1987, providing direct evidence of natural selection and evolutionary change.
Explanation:The procedure most likely followed to determine the change in beak size of finches during an intense drought from 1981 to 1987 is procedure 3: The beak size in a large number of finches was measured every year from 1981 to 1987.
This would provide the most accurate, long-term data about changes in beak size. This constant monitoring of beak size in a substantial population of finches over the course of the years would give the most reliable evidence of any changes in beak size that took place during the drought.
By following evolutionary change over a considerable span of time, the biologist would be able to observe the natural selection in progress as finches with larger beaks, better equipped to deal with the scarcity of thin-walled seeds, would have had a survival advantage and passed their traits onto their offspring.
This is an example of how changes in the environment can lead to an evolutionary response in a population.
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is the self-replicating material present in nearly all living organisms; it is the main constituent of chromosomes and the carrier of genetic information.
Answer:
DNA
Explanation:
DNA is made up of deoxyribonucleotides that are bonded together by phosphodiester bonds. DNA is packed with help of packing proteins into thread-like structures called chromatin. Condensation and compaction of chromatin forms chromosomes. DNA present in cells has the ability to replicate itself.
The parental DNA strands serve as a template and the enzyme DNA polymerase forms new DNA strands. In this way, new DNA molecules are formed during cell cycle which are then distributed among the newly formed daughter cells. This process of transmission of DNA from one generation to next carries the genetic information from the parents to the progeny in all the living beings.
Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?
a. diphtheria
b. measles
c. tuberculosis
d. botulism
e. the common cold
Answer: d) botulism
Explanation:
Droplet transmission occurs when bacteria or viruses travel on relatively large respiratory droplets that people sneeze, cough, drip, or exhale.
Many common infections can spread by droplet transmission in at least some cases, including: Common cold, Diphtheria, Fifth disease (erythema infectiosum), Influenza, Meningitis, Mycoplasma, Mumps, Pertussis (whooping cough), Plague, Rubella, Strep (strep throat, scarlet fever, pneumonia), Tuberculosis, measles.
Frequent hand cleansing, especially with instant hand sanitizers, can help prevent droplet transmission.
When the human virus HIV first appeared, the mortality rate was close to 100%. However, recent information shows some individuals are unaffected by the virus. Why is this not surprising?
A) Individuals started to use protective measures more frequently.
B) The virus mutated through natural selection.
C) Humans are genetically diverse, and some are immune to the virus.
D) New pharmaceutical medicines were produced that were more effective.
Answer:
The correct answer is C) Humans are genetically diverse, and some are immune to the virus.
Explanation:
Human Immuno virus is the virus that is responsible for causing a deadly disease called AIDS in humans. When this virus has first appeared the mortality rate was close to 100% but now it is found that some people are not affected by this virus because they have some variation in their genome which does not allow the HIV to infect immune cells.
Some humans have mutated CCR5 gene and CCR5 gene plays an important role in HIV entry in the immune cell. These individuals with mutated CCR5 gene do not allow the entry of the HIV in the immune cell and protect these people from HIV infection. So some humans are immune to the HIV therefore the right answer is C.
Some individuals are unaffected by the HIV due to genetic diversity and natural immunity.
Explanation:The reason it is not surprising that some individuals are unaffected by the HIV is that humans are genetically diverse, and some have natural immunity to the virus. This genetic diversity means that different individuals may have different variations in their DNA, some of which may confer resistance to the virus.
While protective measures, such as safe sex practices and the use of antiretroviral medications, have helped reduce the transmission and impact of HIV, the primary reason for some individuals being unaffected is their natural genetic immunity.
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A vegetative cell is _______.
a. a metabolically active cell
b. a non-diving bacterial cell
c. a bacterial cell with
d. an impervious coating
e. a frozen cell
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A vegetative cell is similar to the somatic cells in our body. They are cells of a bacterium or other organisms that actively divide instead of forming reproductive structures like spores. Vegetative cell is any other cell asides the reproductive cells in an organism. Unlike reproductive cells (spores) in some organisms which helps such organism withstand adverse condition in order to ensure germination, vegetative cells are metabolically active and hence keeps undergoing division.
When conditions are unfavorable e.g nutrient deficiency, water inavailability etc. a bacterium cell forms an endospore used to endure that period, once things go back to normal, the endospore germinates into a viable vegetative cell that can continue growth and cell division.
A vegetative cell is a metabolically active cell (option A). It is often used to describe the active growth phase in bacteria and plants.
Explanation:A vegetative cell is a metabolically active cell that is engaged in maintaining life processes. It is an actively growing cell in a bacterial population. It is in contrast to spore forms or resting stages, which are not actively metabolizing or dividing. This usually involves activities such as growth, nutrition intake, and reproduction. A vegetative cell is a non-dividing cell and doesn't have an impervious coating.
The term is often used in the context of bacteria and plants, reflecting the active growth phase of these organisms.
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A particular antibiotic kills 99% of a bacterial population. What will be the result of the continued application of this antibiotic?
Answer:
over time the antibiotic will become less effective against bacteria.
Explanation:
A new antibiotic can kill a greater percentage of bacteria because very less bacteria is resistant towards that antibiotic but when that antibiotic is used continuously for a long time then some bacteria develop resistance against that antibiotic and due to natural selection these bacteria are selected.
So if a particular antibiotic kills 99% of a bacterial population so the continuous use of this antibiotic will allow some bacteria to evolve resistance against it. Then these resistant bacteria will be selected by natural selection and over time the antibiotic will become less effective against bacteria.
Continued application of antibiotics leads to survival and proliferation of resistant forms of bacteria due to the principle of natural selection. Misuse of antibiotics, especially in livestock feed, accelerates this process. It contributes to a medical crisis, making it challenging for scientists to generate an effective and approved drug.
Explanation:The continued application of an antibiotic that kills 99% of a bacterial population would lead to the survival of resistant forms of bacteria. The antibiotic massacres most harmful bacteria, however, resistant forms persist and multiply, causing an increase in their proportion. This phenomenon is known as natural selection.
Overuse and misuse of antibiotics, particularly in livestock, accelerates this process. In the United States, for example, antibiotics constitute 70% of the total amount given to animals, often in low doses which intensify the chances of resistance development. These resistant bacteria can subsequently be transferred to humans.
In conclusion, the upshot is a medical crisis where a simple bacterial infection could pose grave threats to human health. Development of new antibiotics is in progress, but it takes years of research and substantial financial investment. Consequently, judicious use of antibiotics is crucial to prevent rapid development of antibiotic resistance.
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This type of research is descriptive and investigates the why and how of decision making, not just what, where, when. These methods produce information only on the particular cases studied, and any more general conclusions are only propositions (informed assertions).
a. quantitative
b. ethnographic
c. microgenic
d. qualitative
Answer:
The correct answer is - option D.
Explanation:
Qualitative research is research or scientific method which is involved in various subject matters and fields, of collecting observation and nonnumeric data. This is the research normally is descriptive, exploratory and other qualitative methods to answer the question.
It is an investigation that is not just addressed what and where but also to the questions like how, and why. This is the reason these are used in small samples rather than large samples and also used on species cases to get information.
Thus, the correct answer is - option D.
A little girl was playing in the snow one day and found that she was wiping her nose quite often. The "runny nose" that she was experiencing due to the cold temperatures resulted from:_______.
a. the slowed activity of nasal cilia.
b. an insufficient production of mucus.
c. an inadequate supply of blood to the nasal epithelium.
d. a build up of tears in the nasal septum.
Answer:
Answer is A, the slowed activity of the nasal cilia.
Explanation:
The nasal cilia are hair-like structure or projection. which are found in the mucus membrane. The germ , dust or particles that could cause irritation to the lung, are captured by the mucus. This mucus are moved away from the lung by the nasal cilia, either through the nose or swallow.
They can also be found at the air passage , moving mucus out of the lung.
In the case of the little girl, the girl experienced a running nose due to the slow activity of the nasal cilia, this is because of the col temperature.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Inside the nose contains special lining of mucosa that produces mucus. The mucosa lining also includes cilia, or tiny hair-like structures. As air passes through the nose, the nasal cilia are always in motion to trap harmful particles in the form of mucus. They are trapped in the nose as mucus.
In cold temperatures, the pace of the nasal cilia is slowed down. As the cell trapped mucus increases, the mucus stays in the nose and then drips or dribbles out of the nose causing running nose.
The following experiment is used for the following question. A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look like oak flowers, but caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak twigs. How does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars on the same trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same population and collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical cups. The eggs hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the four temperature and light conditions listed below. Temperature Day Length Springlike Springlike Springlike Summerlike Summerlike springlike Summerlike summerlike In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments × 2 diets). Recall that eggs from the same female were exposed to each of the eight treatments used. This aspect of the experimental design tested which of the following hypotheses?
The experiment tests the effects of environment and diet on the physical appearance of caterpillars hatching in different seasons, aiming to see if these factors can induce different phenotype expressions within the same genetic population.
Explanation:The experiment was designed to test two primary hypotheses: one related to the impact of environment (temperature and day length) and second, the impact of diet (oak flowers or leaves) on moth caterpillar appearance. Given the different physical appearances of caterpillars hatching in spring and summer despite coming from the same genetic population, the experiment is likely trying to test whether environment (springlike or summerlike conditions) and diet (oak flowers or leaves) can induce different phenotype expressions.
The uniqueness of the experiment lies in the combination of both factors as it separates the influence of the environment from the diet of the caterpillars. This dissociation will allow the biologist to identify whether it's the combinatorial effects of time/temperature of the year and the type of diet that leads to the distinct appearance of caterpillars or if any one of these factors has a dominant influence.
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Which of the following best describes an opportunity for pharmacists to use diagnosis-based screening to identify people at risk for vaccine-preventable diseases?
Answer:
Vaccination may be defined as the process of the administration of the particular antigen or the chemicals in the form of vaccine against a particular disease. Vaccination helps in the prevention of disease.
The pharmacist almost have proper knowledge about the vaccination and its effects. The screening to identify whether the individual is at risk for vaccine-preventable diseases by performing the medication on the the client that are suffering from diabetes.
A client reports a general deterioration in his health over the past several weeks. Which assessment and laboratory findings would be most closely associated with acute leukemia?
Answer: On clinical examintaion of the client, general signs of anemia, pallor and cardiac flow mrumur can be seen. Lab daignosis of acute leukemia can be done by bone marrow aspiration and biopsy.
Explanation:
Acute leukemia is a malignant neoplastic condition arising from the myeloid line or the lymphoid line of cell.
All are typically childhood malingancy but acute leukemia is primarily found more in adults.
A client with acute leukemia me present with fevers, chills, fatigue weakness, pain, bleeding from the gums, pallor nd frequent infections.
Laboratory diagnosis of acute leukemia can be done by bone marrow aspiration, biopsy, flow cytometry and blood tests.
Suppose that two distantly related species live in similar environments and share a distinctive characteristic that facilitates survival in their environment but is not found in their immediate ancestors. Based on this information, this distinctive feature most likely represents________.
The distinctive feature shared by the two distantly related species, that is not found in their immediate ancestors, likely represents convergent evolution. This term describes the process by which unrelated species adapt to similar environments by developing similar traits.
Explanation:Based on the information provided, the distinctive feature shared by the two distantly related species most likely represents convergent evolution. Convergent evolution is a concept in biology that refers to the process whereby organisms not closely related, independently evolve similar traits as a result of having to adapt to similar environments or ecological niches. An example is the similarity in the shape and functions of wings found in bats (mammals) and birds (avian), despite descending from different ancestors. These species have developed similar characteristics to survive in similar environments, although this feature is not found in their immediate ancestors.
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The distinctive feature shared by two distantly related species living in similar environments, which is not present in their immediate ancestors, likely represents a classic example of convergent evolution.
Convergent evolution occurs when unrelated organisms independently evolve similar traits or characteristics in response to similar environmental pressures. In this case, these two species likely faced similar environmental challenges, prompting them to develop this shared adaptation independently.
Convergent evolution demonstrates the power of natural selection in shaping and optimizing organisms for specific ecological niches. The fact that this feature is not present in their immediate ancestors suggests that it arose in response to the specific challenges of their shared environment rather than being inherited from a common ancestor. This phenomenon highlights the remarkable ability of life to adapt to its surroundings, leading to the emergence of analogous traits in unrelated species as they independently evolve solutions to comparable ecological problems.
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The tiny blue-eyed Mary flower is often one of the first flowers seen in the spring in some regions of the United States. The flower is normally blue, but sometimes a white or pink flower variation is found.
The following data were obtained after several crosses.
Parents F1 F2
Blue × white Blue 196 blue, 63 white
Blue × pink Blue 149 blue, 52 pink
Pink × white Blue 226 blue, 98 white, 77 pink
(A) The appearance of blue in the F1 generation of the pink and white cross demonstrates that flower color is not an inherited trait but is determined by the environment.
(B) Flower color depends on stages of flower development, and young flowers are white, advancing to pink and then blue.
(C) Since the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the pink and white cross do not fit the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios, blue-eyed. Mary must reproduce by vegetative propagation.
(D) Flower color is an inherited trait, and the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the flowers arising from the pink and white cross can best be explained by another gene product that influences the
phenotypic expression.
Answer:
Flower color is an inherited trait, and the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the flowers arising from the pink and white cross can best be explained by another gene product that influences the phenotypic expression.
Explanation:
The crossing between the two generations of phenotypes creates a cross between the two colors of traits indefinitely.
Flower color is an inherited trait, and the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the flowers arising from the pink and white cross can best be explained by another gene product that influences the phenotypic expression.
What are phenotypes?The phenotype is the set of observable characteristics or traits of an organism. The term covers the organism's morphology or physical form and structure, its developmental processes.
Phenotype refers to an individual's observable traits, such as height, eye color and blood type. A person's phenotype is determined by both their genomic makeup (genotype) and environmental factors.
Phenotypic variation in humans is a direct consequence of genetic variation, which acts in conjunction with environmental and behavioral factors to produce phenotypic diversity.
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The idea that a specific function, like color vision, occurs in a specific region of the brain is called _____.
Answer:
Cortical localization
Explanation:
The theory of localization explains that certain functions are associated with specific areas of brain. According to theory of cortical localization of function different cerebral cortical territories perform different functions, such as vision and language. Such as any damage to Broca's area will render a person to speak although he is able to understand the language. In the same way any damage to ventral occipital lobe/cortical region will cause a problem in color vision.
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Cloning is the creation of an organism that is an exact genetic copy of another. There are a couple of ways to make an exact genetic copy of an organism: artificial embryo twinning and somatic cell nuclear transfer. Artificial embryo twinning is the relatively low-tech version of cloning and it mimics the natural process of creating identical twins. Somatic cell nuclear transfer, (SCNT) uses a different approach than artificial embryo twinning, but it produces the same result: an exact clone, or genetic copy, of an individual. What are the steps in SCNT? Order these steps so you can complete your own cloning project. A. Stimulate cell division B. Deliver baby C. Remove and discard the nucleus from the egg cell D. Isolate donor cells from egg donor and germ cell donor E. Transfer the somatic cell nucleus into the egg cell F. Implant embryo into a surrogate mother
Answer: The correct order is
D. Isolate donor cells from egg donor and germ cell donor
C. Remove and discard the nucleus from the egg cell
E. Transfer the somatic cell nucleus into the egg cell
A. Stimulate cell division
F. Implant embryo into a surrogate mother
B. Deliver baby
Explanation: SCNT (somatic cell nuclear transfer) is a technique used to transfer the nucleus of a somatic (body) cell to the cytoplasm of an enucleated egg (an egg whose nucleus has been removed).
The steps involved in SCNT are:
1) Preparation and extraction of the somatic cell: This step involves preparation and extraction of somatic (body) cell from any part of the body but preferably the skin.
2). Enucleation: This step involves the removal of the egg's nucleus.
3). Nuclear transfer: This involves the transfer of the somatic cell nucleus into the enucleated egg.
4). Egg incubation: It involves the incubation of the egg in a medium that stimulates cell division and conducive for embryonic development. Once the somatic cell nucleus is transfer into the egg, the cytoplasmic factors of the egg reprogramme somatic cell nucleus to become a nucleus of a zygote (fertilized egg). The zygote then develops to the blastocyst stage.
5). Embryogenesis: This involves the implantation of the blastocyst into the surrogate mother who carries the developing embryo.
6). The surrogate mother carries the developing embryo like a normal pregnancy and delivers the baby when it is due.
Two populations of a species of squirrel are geographically isolated from each other. Although they have the same population density, one population is significantly larger in number than the other. A new bacterial disease, which is easily spread and extremely virulent, affects both populations at the same time.
Which of the following is the best prediction of how the new disease will affect the two populations?
(A) The two populations will be equally affected, because the ability to trigger an immune response is randomly distributed among all squirrels of that species.
(B) The larger population will be less affected by the disease than will the smaller population, because the mutation rate of the larger population is higher than the mutation rate of the smaller population.
(C) The smaller population will be more affected than will the larger population, because the smaller population has less genetic variation than the larger population has.
(D) The smaller population will be less affected than will the larger population, because the smaller population exhibits more genetic drift than the larger population exhibits.
Answer:
C) The smaller population will be more affected than will the larger population, because the smaller population has less genetic variation than the larger population has.
Explanation:
Genetic variations are present in the natural populations. Some of the genetic traits become adaptive under the changed environmental conditions and allow the individuals carrying them to survive and reproduce. In this way, the genetic variations help to maintain a population.
Therefore, a larger population of a squirrel species with more genetic variations will have less intense impacts of a disturbance/natural calamity and/disease. On the other hand, a smaller population of the same species with a lesser number of squirrels has fewer genetic variations. This population is more likely to be affected in a negative way by a disturbance such as pathogen.
The best prediction is that the smaller population of squirrels will be more affected by the disease due to less genetic variation and greater susceptibility to genetic drift, potentially resulting in a greater loss of alleles and individuals with disease resistance.
Explanation:The question asks how a new bacterial disease will affect two geographically isolated populations of squirrels, one larger and one smaller, but with the same population density. Genetic diversity is a key factor in determining a population's ability to cope with diseases. Since smaller populations tend to have less genetic variation, they are more susceptible to disease. In contrast, larger populations usually maintain a wider array of alleles, providing them with greater resilience to evolving pathogens.
Therefore, the more likely scenario is that the smaller population will be more affected by the disease due to less genetic variation, meaning they have fewer chances for individuals to possess or develop resistance to the disease. This is underlined by the concept of genetic drift, which has a greater impact on smaller populations. If a few individuals with beneficial mutations or immune to the disease exist, in a small population, their loss or failure to breed can have a dramatic impact on the population's overall genetic structure and survival.
Dietary glucose is transported into a cell against its concentration gradient with the aid of membrane proteins called Na /glucose _____.
Answer:
Na+/glucose symporters.
Explanation:
Na+/glucose symporters helps in transporting the glucose across the membrane. It is a transmembrane protein and glucose transport is an example of secondary active transport Na ions is required to drive the transport of glucose.
As it is a symporter so this protein transport sodium and glucose in the same direction. ATP energy is used to transport the glucose against the concentration gradient. Na+/glucose symporters are present on epithelial cell with binds to both Na and glucose and transport them simultaneously in the epithelial cell. So the right answer is Na+/glucose symporters.
The missing phrase is 'co-transporters'. Na/glucose co-transporters assist in the transport of glucose into a cell against its concentration gradient through secondary active transport mechanism.
Explanation:The missing word in the statement is co-transporters. Dietary glucose is transported into a cell against its concentration gradient with the aid of membrane proteins called Na/glucose co-transporters. This is a mechanism in which the glucose molecules are able to move into cells from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration, which ordinarily would require energy. However, this process is coupled with the transport of sodium ions down their concentration gradient, providing the necessary energy for the glucose transport. This process is an example of secondary active transport.
Learn more about co-transporters here:https://brainly.com/question/36087759
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