What could lead to the development of a musculoskeletal disorder?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Lifting

Pushing

Pulling

Answer 2
Final answer:

Musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs) can be caused by poor body posture, performing repetitive tasks, heavy lifting, and working in an awkward position. Also, age, genetics, lack of exercise and poor diet can contribute to developing these disorders.

Explanation:

Musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs) pertain to injuries or pain in the human musculoskeletal system, which includes the joints, ligaments, muscles, nerves, tendons, and structures that support limbs, neck and back. Several factors can lead to the development of a musculoskeletal disorder. Some of these factors include poor body posture, performing repetitive tasks, heavy lifting, or working in an awkward position. In addition, age, genetics, and lifestyle choices such as lack of exercise and poor diet can also contribute to developing MSDs. For example, someone who spends a lot of their day sitting and uses a computer might develop a musculoskeletal disorder if their office chair is not providing adequate back support.

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Related Questions

A healthcare professional creating new knowledge by changing and evolving knowledge based on experience, education, and input from others is:

A. Using feedback
B. Processing knowledge
C. Disseminating knowledge
D. Acquiring knowledge
E. Generating knowledge

Answers

The correct answer would be option E, Generating Knowledge.

A healthcare professional creating new knowledge by changing and evolving knowledge based on experience, education and input from others is Generating Knowledge.

Explanation:

When someone acquires knowledge about something and use it for the purpose of information, this process is called as Generating Knowledge.

When a healthcare professional gathers or acquires knowledge which is based upon the experience, education and any sort of input form others, he is actually generating knowledge. He may either change the knowledge or evolve new knowledge based on the acquired information. This process is called Generating Knowledge.

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The process by which people learn from one another, adopting some part of the other’s way of life, is referred to as


a) discovery.

b) reformulation.

c) cultural diffusion.

d) technological innovation.

Answers

Answer:

I think the answer is C. Cultural Diffusion

Answer:

C

Explanation:

The mother of a 10-year-old child diagnosed with rubella asks what can be done to help her child feel better during her illness. What information can be provided?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - Encourage rest and relaxation

Explanation:

Rubella is an infection that is not severe or infects others normally, There is no external care needed other than the supportive care. Medications are also limited to generic analgesics and antipyretics.

Rubella patients are advised to rest and relax. Motion and movements are not limited so the range of the motion is not needed to include in the advised. Antiviral and antibacterial medication or therapy can be included too.

Thus, the correct answer is -  Encourage rest and relaxation.

Laura measured her body composition by measuring her waist circumference. Her waist is 39 inches. Based on this result, which of the following is TRUE?

Answers

Answer:

c

Explanation:

Compared to high school seniors, college students report a roughly equivalent annual prevalence rate in the use of illicit drugs in general, which is about ____________.

Answers

Complete Question:

Compared to high school seniors, college students report a roughly equivalent annual prevalence

rate in the use of illicit drugs in general, which is about ____________.

A. 26 percent

B. 36 percent

C. 46 percent

D. 48 percent

Answer: 36%

Explanation: Research had shown that illegal drugs consumption has been a great problem in American communities for more than three (3) decades.

Research shows high consumption of illegal drugs among the youth age bracket.

College students account for 36% illegal drugs consumption when compared to high school. Many factors initiates this harmful action. Ranging from peer group, economic and social status etc.

Patricia recently visited a nutritionist who, after examining her weight and height, informed her that her body mass index is 21. This places Patricia in the _____ weight category.

Answers

Answer:

normal weight category

Explanation:

Body mass index (BMI)  -

It refers to the value concluded from the value of weight and height of a person , it basically gives the composition of the body , is referred to as the Body mass index (BMI) .

The value of BMI is calculated by the weight of the person divided by the square of the height .

Hence, the unit of BMI comes out to be Kg / m² .

The values of BMI is characterized as ,

BMI under 18.5 Kg / m² - underweight category .BMI range 18.5 Kg / m² - 25  Kg / m² - normal weight category . BMI above 30 Kg / m² - obese weight category  .

Hence, from the question,

Patricia is in the normal weight category .

Answer:

The correct answer is - normal body weight.

Explanation:

BMI or body mass index is the measurement of the high body fatness by the calculating it from the weight and height of an individual. It is calculated by the weight of an individual in kilograms divided by the height square in meters.

BMI can be assessed on the base of the weight categories that may indicator for the health issue that may rise. According to the BMI categories 18.5 to 25 considered as normal.

BMI ranges are:

Underweight : under 18.5 kg/m2,

Normal weight : 18.5 to 25,

Overweight : 25 to 30, and

obese : over 30.

Thus, the correct answer is - normal body weight.

A nurse is teaching a pre-natal group about the benefits of breast-feeding. The nurse determines teaching has been effective based on which statement?

Answers

Answer:Hello, your question is not complete. Nonetheless, check explanation section to learn one or two things so that you will have more understanding and be able to solve similar questions.

Explanation:

A prenatal class is for mostly for pregnant women, and classes are held to educate them(pregnant women) about things to expect during their pregnancy period, during labour and child birth, and during their early Parenthood which include breastfeeding.

Breastfeeding is a type of nutrition process in which infants/babies are fed with milk from the mammary gland of the mother. The milk from the mother's breast is sterile and more nutrients than any other baby foods.

Since the class is all about the BENEFITS OF BREASTFEEDING, the nurse taking the Pre-natal class will be happy that his or her class in effective if the pregnant women are able to understand the importance of breastfeeding and can answer questions relating to breastfeeding. For example, if the pregnant women understand that breastfeeding increases resistance to infections in babies.

A client comes to the emergency department with skin burns and tells the practitioner that they were caused by a diathermy treatment. The practitioner understands that the burns were caused by _________ type of radiation injury.

Answers

A client comes to the emergency department with skin burns and tells the practitioner that they were caused by a diathermy treatment. The practitioner understands that the burns were caused by _________ type of radiation injury.  

a) Ionizing radiation  

b) Nonionizing radiation  

c) Ultraviolet radiation  

d) Electrical currents

Answer:

d) Electrical currents

Explanation:

Diathermy treatment is a kind of treatment that involves the usage of electrically introduced heat as a form of physical therapy or surgical procedures.  

In physical therapy, it can be used to convey moderate heat personally with intermediary to pathological lesions in the deeper tissues of the body.

Also, diathermy treatment can be subjected to capsules located at joints, fibrous tissues in tendons to ease the severe hardness of joints and further aid the relaxation of the muscles and reduce muscle spams.

In surgery diathermy is used to cauterize blood vessels to prevent excessive bleeding.  Burns from diathermy treatment occurs if there is an outbreak of fire during the surgery due to excessive heat production. Also if the electrical circuits are being disturbed, electrical shocks and burns are possible.

A medical pracatitioner should therefore understands that if a client comes to the emergency department with skin burns and tells the practitioner that they were caused by a diathermy treatment, the medical practitioner should be able to detect that the burns were caused by electrical current during the diathermy treatment process .

A 14-year-old girl presents with right thigh pain that has been going on for the last month. She recalls being kicked in the leg during soccer practice before her symptoms started. She was last seen in the ED two weeks ago and was diagnosed with a muscle contusion. On exam there is a mass palpable over the anterior distal thigh. X-ray of the femur shows a distal femoral diaphyseal lesion with cortical destruction and periosteal reaction with high suspicion for osteosarcoma. Which of the following is true regarding this disease

Answers

Answer:

Taking into account that the alternatives to this case are:

a. Blunt trauma is associated with the pathogenesis of osteosarcoma.

b. Ionizing radiation for childhood cancer is  a risk factor for osteosarcoma.

c. Osteosarcoma most often involves the axial squeleton followed by the long bones.

d. Pathologic fracture is a common presenting sign

The right answer is the option B

Explanation:

In previous medical analysis and research of the disease, sarcomas were one of the first solid cancers to be found connected with ionizing radiation exposure.  The risk of both bone and soft tissue sarcomes are very high after high-dose fractionated radiation (10+Gy) in  childhood.

The nurse has just attended a seminar on concepts of cultural diversity. Which statement made by the nurse would require further education?

Answers

Answer:

Culture cannot be influenced, and you are born with your culture.

Explanation:

Each religion and country has its own culture. The culture determines the social customs, religions, laws and ethics about the particular state. The culture makes the country unique with the other country.

The lots of variation and diversity has been found in the culture of the different state or country. The individual has their own culture that can influence them and makes them familiar with their unique identities. The individual born with their special culture.

"​The addictive potential of alcohol is probably best explained by the way it stimulates the reward pathways for ______ in the brain."

Answers

The addictive potential of alcohol is probably best explained by the way it stimulates the reward pathways for dopamine in the brain.

The addictive potential of alcohol is probably best explained by the way it stimulates the reward pathways for dopamine in the brain. The neurobiological theory of addiction shows that almost all drugs of abuse, including alcohol, affect the limbic system which comprises the brain reward system.

Specifically, substances like alcohol increase the amount of dopamine in brain structures such as the nucleus accumbens and the ventral tegmental area (VTA), which are central to the brain's reward pathway.

When alcohol is consumed, it induces dopamine release and augments the reward circuitry, creating the feelings of pleasure that can lead to repetitive use and addiction. This release is often a response to the increased energy state in the GABAergic and dopaminergic neurons, as seen with other nutrients. However, alcohol, rather uniquely, can pass the blood-brain-barrier and directly stimulate this reward system, making it highly addictive.

In summary, the brain reward pathways, specifically involving the neurotransmitter dopamine, play a crucial role in addiction to alcohol and other drugs. This dopamine-mediated reward circuitry is responsible for the heightened feelings of reward that encourage continued substance use.

Compared with Type B personalities, Type A people are more likely to experience:_____. A. coronary heart disease. B. low blood pressure. C. increased release of lymphocytes. D. low blood sugar levels.

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is A: Coronary heart disease

Explanation:

Cardiologists Friedman and Rosenman discovered what is considered Type A behavior. In one of the research conducted by these Cardiologists, they showed that people who had the Type A personality have a higher risk of developing high blood pressure and heart disease than people with Type B personality. Although it was original coined Type A personality by these aforementioned Cardiologists, the term has now been conceptualized to be called Type A Behavior Pattern.

The _________ helps us walk a straight line without stumbling or leaning forward; it continually communicates with the muscles to coordinate placement, movement, and balance.

Answers

Answer:

What is the brain.

Explanation:

ill take body parts for 600.

Also could i have brainliest ill help on any question you need :)

Select the correct answer. Dr. Willard is performing evaluations of the physicians in the department of pediatrics. To what type of team does Dr. Willard belong? A. administrative team B. coordinating team C. core team D. support team

Answers

Answer

I think its A hope this helps

Explanation:

Answer:

A

Explanation:

#PLATOGANG 5/5

An experienced nurse is mentoring a graduate nurse and critiquing the graduate’s shift handoff. Which statement requires clarification?

Answers

Answer:

The client reports a pain level of 8. She has a low pain tolerance.

Explanation:

The graduate nurse has little understanding of making of report of occurrences and their is an ambiguity in the report making it difficult for the experience nurse to understand the information the graduate is passing.

Answer:

The client has a low pain tolerance

Explanation:

This is because she reported a pain level of eight.

A nurse in the surgical admitting unit is preparing a client for elective coronary artery bypass surgery. Which statement by the client should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider (HCP)?

Answers

The options are:

"I haven't had anything to eat or drink since 8 PM yesterday."

"I took my prasugrel this morning with just a tiny sip of water."

"I'm really nervous about this surgery."

"It always takes several attempts to start my IV."

Answer:

"I took my prasurgel this morning with just a tiny sip of water."

Explanation:

Prasugrel is an antiplatelet medication that should be discontinued by the patient at least 5 to 7 days before the operation. This could cause bleeding, particularly "intraoperative or postoperative bleeding." Other symptoms include headache, nausea and upset stomach. This can also cause "serious bleeding." So, if the patient took prarugrel in the morning, it is best to inform the health care provider. In such situation, the operation will most likely be postponed.

Thus, this explains the answer.

A 36-month-old presents for a well child visit. The parents would like to know if the child's development is progressing approximately ________.

Answers

Answer:

A 36-month-old presents for a well child visit. The parents would like to know if the child's development is progressing approximately:

to its developmental milestones.

Explanation:

The developmental milestones are specific behaviors or physical skills expected from infants from 0 to 3, and children from 3 to 6, at that specific growth stage, which features health and nutritional status, but although they are different for each age range, there is a normal range for each child to reach them, therefore it is important to measure and monitor them at regular intervals to register their progress. Rolling over, crawling, walking, and talking are all considered milestones.

A 30 to 36 month old toddler likely should be able to take part in group activities that include running, galloping, crawling, rolling over, and twirling around, walking on a narrow beam, putting one foot in front of the other for a few steps and climbing the ladder of a slide at a jungle gym.

Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes: Select one: a. neurologic shock. b. vasovagal shock. c. neurogenic shock. d. psychogenic shock.

Answers

Answer:

d. psychogenic shock

Explanation:

Psychogenic shock causes the dilatation of the blood vessels supplying the muscles. This then leads to a decrease in blood pressure and this decrease alters the flow of blood that supplies the brain and ultimately leading to fainting or syncope. Although the pulse rate increases but this only acts as a compensatory mechanism due to the fall in blood pressure. The skin also becomes cold and sweaty as a result of the decrease blood flow.

Final answer:

Vasovagal shock is the term that accurately describes temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope due to a nervous system reaction, and it is different from other types of shock such as neurogenic, obstructive, and anaphylactic shock.

Explanation:

The condition described as temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction is most accurately defined as vasovagal shock. This type of shock is a reflex of the parasympathetic nervous system to certain triggers, such as extreme stress, pain, fear, or prolonged standing. It typically results in a sudden drop in heart rate and blood pressure, leading to fainting (syncope). This reaction is different from neurogenic shock, which occurs from damage to the central nervous system, obstructive shock, which is caused by a blockage in the blood flow, and anaphylactic shock, which is a severe allergic reaction.

Although the pituitary gland is often referred to as the master gland of the body, the hypothalamus exerts control over the pituitary gland. How does the hypothalamus control both the anterior and posterior pituitary functioning?

Answers

Answer:

The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary to release or inhibit pituitary hormone production.

Explanation:

The pituitary gland has two parts—the anterior lobe and posterior lobe—that have two very separate functions. The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary to release or inhibit pituitary hormone production.

The hypothalamus secrete releasing hormone that regulates both the anterior and posterior pituitary gland.

What is hypothalamus?It is located at the base of brain.It secrets hormones that regulates anterior and posterior pituitary gland, temperature and homeostasis.What is releasing hormones?"Releasing hormones are peptide hormones, which are produced within the hypothalamus."These stimulates anterior and posterior pituitary gland to release their hormone.What is anterior pituitary gland?This is the front lobe of pituitary gland.It produces 6 hormones: (1) prolactin, (2) growth hormone, (3) adrenocorticotropic hormone, (4) luteinizing hormone, (5) follicle-stimulating hormone, and (6) thyroid-stimulating hormone.What is posterior pituitary gland?It produces two hormones: vasopressin and oxytocin.This hormones are produced when a message is send by hypothalamus.

Hence, the hypothalamus secretes hormone which stimulates the pituitary gland.

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As supervisor of the cancer registry, you report the registry's annual caseload to administration. The most efficient way to retrieve this information would be to use
A. patient abstracts.B. accession register.C. patient index.D. follow-up files.

Answers

Answer:

.B. accession register

Explanation:

Registration is a term that originates in the Latin word regestum. It is about the action and the consequences of registering, a verb that refers to observing or inspecting something carefully. To register is also to write down or record a certain data in a document or paper.

In this case, being able to access the registry is the easiest and most efficient way to recover the information.

You are testing a hypothesis that salamanders disappeared from a flower bed because an invasive ant species drove them away. To test this hypothesis you make 40 flower beds with the same number of salamanders in each bed. You then place the invasive ants into 20 flower beds, and leave the other 20 beds ant free. After a month you count the number of salamanders in each flower bed.

Answers

Answer:

Salamanders are being driven away from the flower beds by the invasive ants specie because the two organism have hostile relationship to each other and can not coexist.

To test the hypothesis in the question, check the explanation column below

Explanation:

40 flower beds with the same number of salamanders in each bed. You then place the invasive ants into 20 flower beds, and leave the other 20 beds ant free. Leave these for three weeks

Results:

At the end of the third week, it will be observed that the flower beds that contain the invasive ants species will no longer contain the salamanders, WHILE the 20 remaining flower beds where the ants were not placed will still contain the salamanders.

Conclusion from this hypothesis is that invasive ants specie and salamanders can not coexist

An association between populations that eat more fish and a lower mortality rate from coronary heart disease in the same population would establish which of the following:_____
A. A group association that may be helpful in generating a hypothesis about the relationship between fish consumption and coronary heart disease.
B. An individual association establishing that eating fish is associated with coronary artery disease.
C. A cause and effect relationship between fish consumption and coronary heart disease.
D. None of these are correct.

Answers

Answer:

A group association that may be helpful in generating a hypothesis about the relationship between fish consumption and coronary heart disease.

Explanation:

The scientific hypothesis explains about the reason and explanation of the particular phenomena. The hypothesis is mainly based on the environmental observations of the scientist.

While explaining the hypothesis about the particular relationship between two things, at least some group association is required. The group association is helpful in the observation and effect of the relationship between the individual. The fish consumption and coronary heart disease must be a group association for the hypothesis development.

Thus, the correct answer is option (A).

Max wants to get in better physical shape and lose 10pounds. His belief about whether he can successfully begin and maintain a fitness program is directly related to his level of

Answers

Question: Max wants to get in better physical shape and lose 10 pounds. His belief about whether he can successfully begin and maintain a fitness program is directly related to his level of

A) self-satisfaction.

B) self-mastery.

C) self-esteem.

D) self-efficacy.

Answer:

Max wants to get in better physical shape and lose 10 pounds. His belief about whether he can successfully begin and maintain a fitness program is directly related to his level of "self-efficacy"

Explanation:

It is the person's confidence or its capacity to perform behavior that are required in order to generate act attainment. In general terms it the self- efficacy is the assurance in the capability to undergo or control on own motivation, behavior or the social surrounding. The self- efficacy can be seen in various terms like parenting, school, work, hobbies, and some other areas.

Final answer:

Max's level of self-efficacy directly influences his ability to begin and maintain a fitness program, which will affect his goal of losing 10 pounds and getting into better physical shape.

Explanation:

Max's belief about whether he can successfully begin and maintain a fitness program is directly related to his level of self-efficacy. Self-efficacy is the belief in one's capabilities to organize and execute the courses of action required to manage prospective situations. In the context of health and fitness, a higher level of self-efficacy often correlates with an individual's commitment to exercise and adherence to fitness programs, which can influence their ability to lose weight and improve physical shape. For Max to achieve his goal of losing 10 pounds, enhancing his self-efficacy through setting achievable goals, monitoring progress, and seeking support can be crucial strategies.

What is the name for the computerized health information system health care professionals use to monitor referrals, treatment plans, and tests?

Answers

Answer:

The name for the computerized health information system health care professionals use to monitor referrals, treatment plans, and tests is Clinical decision support system.

Explanation:

The Clinical decision support system (CDSS)  is an artificial intelligence that was designed to provide doctors with help in decision-making matters, focusing on the use of medical knowledge to be able to give valuable advice and reach the correct diagnosis and treatment of diseases with the input of patient data.

"The correct term for the computerized health information system that health care professionals use to monitor referrals, treatment plans, and tests is an Electronic Health Record (EHR) system.

An Electronic Health Record (EHR) system is a digital version of a patient's paper chart. EHRs are real-time, patient-centered records that make information available instantly and securely to authorized users. Health care providers use EHRs to monitor and track the medical history, diagnoses, medications, treatment plans, immunization dates, allergies, radiology images, and laboratory test results of their patients. EHR systems are designed to share information with other health care providers and organizations  such as laboratories, specialists, medical imaging facilities, pharmacies, emergency facilities, and school and workplace clinics so they contain information from all clinicians involved in a patient's care.

EHRs can enhance the quality of health care by improving the accuracy and clarity of medical records, facilitating quick access to patient records for more coordinated, efficient care, and reducing the potential for errors in prescription and treatment. They also allow for the integration of evidence-based guidelines at the point of care, which can support health care professionals in making decisions for their patients. Additionally, EHRs can help with the management of chronic diseases by providing tools for tracking and reminders for preventive care.

 In summary, an EHR system is a comprehensive health information system that supports the management of patient care, including referrals, treatment plans, and tests, across various health care settings."

Determine whether the breakfast is appropriate for a vegan, lactovegetarian, or lactoovovegetarian and drag the breakfast to its appropriate classification.

Answers

Answer:

VEGAN: oatmeal made with soy milk and blueberries

LACTOVEGETARIAN: whole wheat toast with melted cheese and a glass orange juice

LACTOOVOVEGETARIAN: omelet made with two eggs, shredded cheese, and peppers.

Explanation:

Vegan is the person who follows a dietary regimen that is characterized by completely excluding all foods of animal origin, including products that involve an animal process, such as honey or eggs from the daily food list.

The lacto-vegetarian diet is another alternative to the vegan (or vegetarian) diet. This variant allows you to add milk and dairy products to the daily menu.

Lacto-ovo-vegetarian diet: The least strict vegetarian diet

The ovo-lacto-vegetarian diet is the alternative with less restrictions if you are looking to become a vegetarian. The milk and eggs included in this diet provide you with the necessary proteins that your body needs.

Final answer:

To classify a breakfast as either vegan, lactovegetarian, or lactoovovegetarian, we examine the inclusion of dairy products and eggs. Vegans eat strictly plant-based, lactovegetarians consume dairy but not eggs, and lactoovovegetarians include both dairy products and eggs in their diet.

Explanation:

To determine whether the breakfast is appropriate for a vegan, lactovegetarian, or lactoovovegetarian, we must look at the ingredients included in the meal. A vegan diet excludes all animal products including dairy and eggs. A lactovegetarian diet includes dairy products but no eggs. Lastly, a lactoovovegetarian diet includes both dairy products and eggs.

If the breakfast contains dairy products such as cheese or milk but no eggs, it is appropriate for lactovegetarian and lactoovovegetarian diets. If the breakfast includes eggs, with or without dairy products, it is suitable for lactoovovegetarians. Finally, if the breakfast contains neither dairy nor eggs and solely plant-based ingredients, it is suitable for vegans.

When analyzing a vegetarian or vegan diet for health, it's important to consider the inclusion of foods fortified with nutrients of concern such as vitamins B12, D, calcium, omega-3 fatty acids, and choline to maintain nutrient adequacy.

Which drug is approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as a dietary adjunct to reduce triglyceride levels greater than 500 mg/dL?

Answers

Explanation:

Drug, approved by the Food and Drug Administration as dietary adjunct is

You are providing first aid to a person who appears to have suffered a stroke and is paralyzed on the right side. Based on his anatomy, the stroke likely occurred in the left side of his brain?

1. True
2.False

Answers

True
If the stroke occurs on the left side of the brain, the right side will be affected

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends limiting calories from added sugars and saturated fats. They also recommend decreasing the intake of sodium. Which foods provide most of the sodium in our daily diets?

Answers

Answer:

The foods that provide most of the sodium in our daily diets are the ultraprocessed items, snacks, some ready sausages, industrial soups and most types of cheese.

Explanation:

Some of these ultraprocessed products are in need of sodium because it contributes to its maintenance. Sodium is also used in order to make food more tasty. In the case of cheese, sodium content is a result of its own making process. These is an aspect that gains importance because the consumption of exaggerated amounts of sodium might help in increasing blood pressure and cardiovascular diseases.

A frantic neighbor is knocking at your door. She says that she cannot wake her sleeping roommate. She remembers that her roommate took some pills about 2 hours ago, but she is not sure what they were or where her roommate keeps them. You enter and see a person lying face-up on the couch but not moving. You want to help. How do you respond?

Answers

Answer:

-Check for airway passage blockage if none

-Size the scene right up.

-Shout-tap-shout. The response and respiration check should be at least 5 seconds but not more than 10 seconds.

-If no injuries are found during head-to-toe checks while waiting for EMS to arrive, put the person in a recovery position on his side.

The emergency protocols are necessary and can be life-saving for the victim. The steps of the protocols should be followed sequentially.

The responder should follow the steps until the EMS arrives as:

The responder should check for any airway blockage and breathing pattern and pulse of the victim.

Size up the scene, which means that the responder should ensure all the resources are available, the victim is in the safe zone, and update the EMS about the whole situation.

Follow the shout-tap-shout protocol, in which the respiration and response of the victim should be checked for at least 5 seconds.

If no visible injuries or clots are observed on the body, the responder should put the victim on the side in the recovery position until the EMS arrives.

Thus, the responder should follow the emergency protocol and call 911 to save the victim.

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To ensure optimal ____ health, we must feed our bodies nutritiously, exercise them regularly, avoid harmful behaviors and substances, watch for early signs of sickness, and protect ourselves from accidents.

Answers

Answer:

Physical.

Explanation:

The individual should keep the body and mind fit to stay away from the disease and the stress condition. The proper health of the individual increase the age as well as the social status of an individual.

The optimal physical health includes the state of the wellness of an individual. The optimal health can be developed by the proper yoga and exercise. The balanced diet with the roper nutritious and no inhalation of harmful chemical substance helps in the development of the optimal physical health.

Thus, the answer is physical.

Other Questions
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