Answer:
See below
Explanation:
A budgetary fund is an income account and thus a debit balance suggests a deficit on the fund account. This means that governing bodies of City of Goodville have spent more money in their expenditures than they have brought in as income from the fund. This will be recorded as a liability in the balance sheet. Where as a credit balance would be a surplus and recorded as an asset.
Dell first chooses whether to offer Symantec $30 or $20 for each copy of its software, and then Symantec responds by either accepting or rejecting the offer. The strategies and corresponding profits (in millions) for Dell (D) and Symantec (S) are depicted in the decision tree to the right. What is the Nash equilibrium of the game?
A. Dell will offer $30 per copy of the software and Symantec will accept the offer.
B. Dell will offer $30 per copy of the software and Symantec will reject the offer.
C. Dell will offer $20 per copy of the software and Symantec will reject the offer.
D. Dell will offer $20 per copy of the software and Symantec will accept the offer.
Answer:
The correct answer is Dell will offer $20 per copy of the software and Symantec will accept the offer.
Explanation:
A Nash equilibrium is a situation in which all players have put into practice, and know that they have done so, a strategy that maximizes their earnings given the strategies of others. Consequently, no player has any incentive to individually modify their strategy.
It is important to keep in mind that a Nash equilibrium does not imply that the best joint result for the participants is achieved, but only the best result for each of them considered individually. It is perfectly possible that the result would be better for everyone if, in some way, the players coordinated their action.
In economic terms, it is a kind of imperfect balance of competition that describes the situation of several companies competing for the market of the same good and who can choose how much to produce to try to maximize their profit.
A manufacturing firm's cost of goods manufactured is equivalent to a merchandising firm's: Select one: a. Cost of goods sold. b. Cost of goods purchased. c. Cost of goods available. d. Beginning merchandise inventory. e. Ending merchandise inventory.
Answer:
(B) Cost of goods purchased
Explanation:
While a merchandising company buys goods from its suppliers (goods purchased) and adds this to its opening inventory to determined the quantity of goods it has available for sale (goods available for sale), a manufacturing firm makes the goods to be sold (goods manufactured) and add to its opening inventory of finished goods to determine the same metric (quantity of goods available for sale).
This relationship can be seen when the trading account of both firms are compared.
You are going to the movie theater with your grandparents and your younger brother. Senior citizen tickets cost $6, your ticket cost $6.25 and your brothers cost $4.25. If you spent an additional $20 on soda and popcorn, what is the total cost of your trip to the movie theater?
Final answer:
The total cost of the trip to the movie theater is $42.50, which includes the tickets for your grandparents, yourself, your younger brother, and the additional $20 spent on soda and popcorn.
Explanation:
The total cost of the trip to the movie theater can be calculated by adding the cost of each ticket and the additional expenses on soda and popcorn. Here is the breakdown:
Now, we sum up all the costs to find the total:
Total Cost = Senior citizen tickets + Your ticket + Your brother's ticket + Additional expenses
Total Cost = $12.00 + $6.25 + $4.25 + $20.00 = $42.50
Therefore, the total cost of your trip to the movie theater is $42.50.
Which of the following are government policies designed to deal with monopolies?
i. Try to make monopolized industries more competitive.
ii. Regulate the behavior of monopolies.
iii. Turn some private monopolies into public enterprises.
iv. Do nothing at all.
Answer:
All options apply
Explanation:
i) The government can establish antitrust laws to increase market competition.
ii) The government can set rules that regulate the behavior of monopolies, e.g. setting price ceilings
iii) Some natural private monopolies can be bought by the government (usually local or regional) and turned into public companies, e.g. utilities
iv) The government can simply do nothing at all and hope that the market will by itself correct this issue when new competitors enter the market, e.g. Microsoft
To deal with monopolies, governments generally employ several strategies like fostering competition in monopolized industries, regulating monopolies, or turning private monopolies into public enterprises. However, some may choose to 'do nothing at all’, though this is less common.
Explanation:The government employs a variety of policies to deal with monopolies. These strategies include attempts to foster competition in monopolized markets, regulation of monopolies to limit their power, and in some instances, converting private monopolies into public enterprises. However, some government policies might not interfere with monopolies and prefer to 'do nothing at all', although this approach is less common as an unchecked monopoly can cause market failure.
Fostering competition can include measures such as antitrust laws and deregulation, which aim to encourage competition and discourage monopolistic behavior. Regulating monopolies could involve setting price caps or quality standards to protect consumers. Turning private monopolies into public enterprises generally occurs when a government considers a particular industry as a necessary public service that should be accessible to all. This is commonly seen in sectors like healthcare, education, and public transportation.
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Suppose a riskless project requires an initial investment of $10 and will generate a one-time cash inflow of $30 two years later. Assuming a risk-free interest rate of 5%, which of the following statements about the project is NOT true?
A. The net present value of the project is positive.B. The IRR is greater than 50 percent.C. The accounting rate of return on the project is positive.D. The payback period is less than 2 years.
Answer:
D. The payback period is less than 2 years.
Explanation:
Discount rate 5%
0 1 2
intital investment -10
cash flow 0 30
Total cash flow -10 0 30
NPV 17.21
IRR 73%
Therefore, The NPV is 17.21 and is positive, the statement is True.
IRR > 50%, Therefore the statement made is True
Accounting rate of return = {[(30 - 10)/10]^(1/2)} - 1
= 41% > 0
Therefore, The statement made is true.
Payback period = 2 years, Therefore the statement made is NOT true.
Ron is a sales representative for Staples. He works in a business-to-business environment trying to sell office supply products to offices. He works to build long-term associations with his customers by regularly communicating with them. He spends a long time listening to their needs and provides support after the sale. Which type of selling is Ron engaged in?
A) Order takingB) Team sellingC) Technical sellingD) Missionary sellingE) Trade selling
Answer: C) Technical selling
Explanation:
Technical selling or technical sales is an act in which a sales person helps to address customer's needs by understanding what they needs which is a determinant of what product to buy.
Technical selling involves the sales personnel addressing the need of customers, explaining the type and features of the product they needs, network with them and make sure they are satisfied.
A technical sales person must have the ability for effective communication and have good interpersonal skills so as to maintain a good relationship with customers.
Larry is asked to conduct an STP analysis for his firm. The first step he should perform in this analysis is to: A. develop a business mission statement.B. choose the best target markets.C. reposition existing segments.D.divide the marketplace into subgroups.E. conduct a SWOT analysis
The first step he should perform in this analysis is to conduct a SWOT analysis.
Explanation:
For larry to conduct the STP analysis he needs to conduct a SWOT analysis to be able to get his segment, targeting and positioning model in for the firm.
SWOT analysis will make Larry consider his Strength, Weakness, Opportunities and Threats in the segment it is investing in and any target market it is opting to go into.
This will help the firm to always know its position in the market.
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Final answer:
Larry should begin the STP analysis by dividing the marketplace into subgroups as the initial step before selecting target markets and positioning offerings. The correct answer is "D. divide the marketplace into subgroups."
Explanation:
The first step Larry should perform in conducting an STP analysis for his firm is to divide the marketplace into subgroups. This involves segmenting the market based on various criteria such as demographics, behaviors, psychographics, and other factors to identify and understand potential customer groups. Following this, he can assess the attractiveness of these segments and select the most promising ones as target markets. Lastly, he will position his firm's offerings to appeal to these chosen segments, which may involve repositioning based on market feedback.
Southern Security makes safes for storing valuables. When Ed sold safes for the company, he would deal with a prospect's concerns such as the cost of the safe and then ask, "Are you ready to purchase a safe for your family, or are there other concerns that we need to discuss?" When Ed asked this question, he was ________.
Answer:
in which stage of the selling process of Close.
Explanation:
In terms of sales, closing is simply defined as the instant when the transaction is made by a prospective or consumer.
So few opportunities close themselves, making it possible to initiate the closing for the salesperson.
This could be unsettling, especially for new salespersons, because it ends up leaving the salesperson exposed to the possibility of being rejected.
During an interview, you can expect the majority of questions to be about:
Group of answer choices
your professional background.
other places you have worked.
the nature of the job you are applying for.
other candidates’ qualifications.
Answer:
your professional background.
other places you have worked.
the nature of the job you are applying for.
Explanation:
Interviews are important for both the employer and the candidate. For the employer, it is to evaluate if a candidate is the right choice for the open position. For the candidate, it is to learn about the company, the role and to determine if that is the environment he/she wants to work in. Majority of the questions that a candidate is asked revolve around their professional background to determine their experience, places they have worked before, and what they are seeking in their next job(s)
How do public relations and advertising differ?
A. There virtually is no difference between the two.
B. Advertising focuses on paying for time or space that allows advertisers to disseminate their organization's messages about its products and services; in public relations, credibility helps to earn media recognition.
Answer:
B. Advertising focuses on paying for time or space that allows advertisers to disseminate their organization's messages about its products and services; in public relations, credibility helps to earn media recognition.
Explanation:
Public relations involve the creation of a good reputation in society. In public relations, a business engages in activities that create good relations with consumers and the media. The media picks good deeds of the company and writes, thereby promoting the brand name of the business.
A significant difference between advertising and public relation is that advertisements are paid for while public relations is free. Public relations activities will include the business sponsoring publicized events such as sports and art concerts. Participating in charity work is also a way of creating a good reputation. The business benefits by getting an opportunity to promoting its brand name in these events.
Including positive personal qualities on your résumé can help compensate for lack of paid work experience.
A.True
B. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Employers analyse and examine resume to find the best candidate for the job. Employers look for different qualities in a candidate such as personal qualities, education, work experience etc. If a person has less work experience - employers generally look for personal qualities, and it is said that personal qualities can compensate for a lack of work experience.
A licensed _______________ must display his or her license conspicuously in the principal place of business at all times.
Answer:
Broker
Explanation:
A licensed broker must dispaly his or her name boldly in their primary place of business at all times becasue it helps to identify a broker quickly as well as has gives confidence to customers to transact business with them.
Cheers.
A licensed broker is required to display their professional license prominently at their place of business. Option B is correct .
A licensed broker must display his or her license conspicuously in the principal place of business at all times. In the context of real estate and other regulated industries, displaying a professional license is a legal requirement that maintains transparency and trust between service providers and their clients.
This assures clients that the individual they are doing business with has met the necessary qualifications and is recognized by a regulatory body. A salesperson often works under the sponsorship of a licensed broker, so it is the broker that is responsible for maintaining a compliant business environment.
Furthermore, affiliate broker and associate broker could also be terms that refer to licensed individuals that should prominently display their licenses; however, the use of these specific terms can vary by region or specific industry regulations. Correct answer is broker [ option B ] .
Complete question :
A licensed _______________ must display his or her license conspicuously in the principal place of business at all times.
A. salesperson
B. broker
C. affiliate broker
D. associate broker
The phrase 'buy the cheapest house on the block' stems from which principle of value?
Answer: Principle of Regression and Progression
Explanation: In Real Estate Regression concept, A high-valued property surrounded by low- valued homes/property will suffer or witness decrease in value.
While in progression concept, a low-valued property surrounded by high-valued homes or properties will have an increased value.
Hence, The phrase 'buy the cheapest house on the block' as it will benefit from the value of the surrounding properties.
The marketing concept is a philosophy that a business organization should employ to satisfy customers' needs while achieving the overall goals of the organization.A) TrueB) False
Answer:
A: True
Explanation:
Yes, its very much true because basic logic behind the marking concept is that organisation should meet the customer's needs by understanding them. Defining more precisely, meeting the customer needs profitably. Moreover, finding, attracting, getting, keep and growing the customers is the basic theme behind the marketing concept while remaining profitable at the same time.
If mollusk shells were accepted as a method of payment in modern-day markets, what economic role would they play in the financial system?
Answer:
medium of exchange
Explanation:
Mollusk shells would probably be used as a medium of exchange, but cannot be considered money. In order for mollusk shells to be considered money, they have to serve the four functions of money:
serve as a unit of account serve as a store of valueserve as a medium of exchange serve as a standard of deferred payment.There are four major categories with examples that provide a useful way for examining logistics and supply chain performance: They are time, ______, cost, and supporting metrics. Group of answer choices
Answer:
Quality
Explanation:
Logistics and supply chain management performance is best evaluated by examining time required to carry out task, the quality of task at hand, the cost to be expended and the supporting metric.
Answer:
There are four major categories with examples that provide a useful way for examining logistics and supply chain performance: They are time, QUALITY, cost, and supporting metrics. Group of answer choices
Explanation:
Performance measures and metrics are essential for effectively managing logistics operations, particularly in a competitive global economy. The global economy is featured with global operations, outsourcing and supply chain and e-commerce. The real challenge for managers of this new enterprise environment is to develop suitable performance measures and metrics to make right decisions that would contribute to an improved organizational competitiveness and these metrics are time, quality, cost and supporting metrics.
Which of the following is not an assumption associated with the definition of a production function?
A. All units of the inputs are homogeneous.
B. Technology remains constant.
C. The function shows the maximum level of output possible with a given combination of inputs.
D. Both inputs and outputs are measured in monetary units.
Answer: Both inputs and outputs are measured in monetary units.
Explanation: Production function according to Wikipedia is defined as the technological relation between quantities of physical inputs and quantities of output of goods.
Firms subject to the reporting requirements of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 are required by the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act of 1977 to maintain satisfactory internal control. Moreover, the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 requires that annual reports include (1) a statement of management’s responsibility for establishing and maintaining adequate internal control and procedures for financial reporting and (2) management’s assessment of their effectiveness. The role of the registered auditor in this process is to:
A.Express an opinion on the effectiveness of internal contrfinancial reporting.
B.Express an opinion on whether the client is subject to thExchange Act of 1934.
C.Disclaim an opinion on the assessment of controls.
D.Report clients with unsatisfactory internal control to the
Answer:
C) Disclaim an opinion on the assessment of controls.
Explanation:
According to PCAOB AS 2201, the registered auditor must disclaim an opinion on the effectiveness of internal controls used by the corporation. The auditor must also determine whether management's reports are complete and properly presented. In a final report, the auditor must give the reasons for his/her determinations.
All else being equal, does elastic or inelastic demand curve result in higher social surplus? How does elasticity of supply affect social surplus?
Answer:
An elastic demand curve will result in higher social surplus. Social surplus equals consumer surplus plus supplier surplus, or simply total surplus. The highest possible social surplus is reached at the equilibrium point.
If a product's demand is completely inelastic, the supplier can increase the price at will, reducing consumer surplus to minimum levels. If a product's demand is completely elastic, then consumer surplus increases while supplier surplus is directly related to shifts in the demand. Higher demand increases supplier surplus.
An elastic demand curve results in a higher social surplus compared to an inelastic demand curve. Elasticity of supply affects the impact of demand shifts on equilibrium quantity and price. Long-run elasticity is typically higher as consumers and producers can adjust behavior and resources over time.
Considering an elastic demand curve versus an inelastic demand curve, the former typically results in a higher social surplus. Social surplus, which is the sum of consumer and producer surplus, is larger when the price elasticity of demand is greater because consumers are more responsive to price changes, leading to more efficient market transactions. On the other hand, an inelastic demand curve implies that consumers are less responsive to price changes, which can lead to a loss of potential social surplus as the market does not adjust quantities as efficiently in response to price changes.
As for the impact of elasticity of supply on social surplus, an elastic supply means that producers are able to respond more easily to price changes by altering their production levels. If the supply is elastic, shifts in demand will have a larger effect on the equilibrium quantity rather than the price. Conversely, with an inelastic supply, shifts in demand will have a greater impact on the price rather than the quantity.
Elasticity typically increases in the long run for both demand and supply because there is more time for consumers and producers to adjust their behavior and resources in response to market changes. In the short run, adjustments are more challenging due to various constraints, leading to lower elasticity.
The incidence of a tax depends on the relative elasticities of demand and supply. If demand is perfectly inelastic, or supply is perfectly elastic, the tax burden falls entirely on consumers. This is because the demand for the product does not change despite the higher price due to the tax, ensuring that consumers bear the cost. Whereas, if demand is elastic, producers would bear a larger share of the tax burden as consumers would significantly reduce their quantity demanded in response to any price increase.
Michael McNamee is the proprietor of a property management company, Apartment Exchange, near the campus of Pensacola State College. The business has cash of $8,000 and furniture that cost $9,000 and has a market value of $13,000. The business debts include accounts payable of $6,000. Michael's personal home is valued at $400,000, and his personal bank account has a balance of $1,200. Identify the principle or assumption that best matches the situation:
Answer:
A) Economic Entity Assumption
B) Cost Principle
C) Monetary unit assumption
D) Going concern assumption
Explanation:
A) As the business properties (Apartment Exchange) are separated from personal assets by not recording those personal assets in the balance sheet, it is the economic entity assumption. Economic Entity Assumption refers to the state that the properties of owners should be separated from the business properties.
B) The company records furniture in the balance sheet at the cost of $9,000 instead of the market price of $13,000. It is an example of the cost principle. Cost principle states that the cost price of an asset should be recorded in the balance sheet at the time of purchasing the asset instead of a recent or market price.
C) As the company records its financial statements in U.S. dollars, it matches with the monetary unit assumption. According to the monetary unit assumption, business corporation's transactions are expressed through a monetary value of that country's currency. Here, Apartment Exchange company's transactions are measured and expressed through a specific currency, and it is a reliable unit.
D) As Michael expects the company to remain in operations for the foreseeable future, it is the assumption of the going concern assumption. According to the going concern assumption, a company will continue to operate in the market for the foreseeable future. It may only stop only when the owners want to liquidate their assets.
In considering how to allocate its scarce resources among its various members, a household considers:_______
a. each member's abilities.
b. each member's efforts.
c. each member's desires.
d. all of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation:
According to the given question, the household consider the each member's desire, abilities and the efforts for allocating the scare resources among to the various types of members.
The allocation of the resources to each member is the process of distributing the resources according to the members needs or their specific requirement. The process of resources allocation is managing the assets by using the strategic in an organization.
Therefore, Option (D) is correct.
Refer to the following table:The net incomeor loss for the year wasa) 7,700b) 12,800c) 5,900d) 15,100Following is a random list showing the account balances of various assets, liabilities, revenues, and expenses for Michael's Landscaping at December 31, 2013, the end of its first year of operations.Accounts receivable $25,000Accounts payable 3,500Salary expense 4,500Repairs expense 800Truck 8,500Equipment 6,300Notes payable 8,200Cash 6,800Supplies expense 1,600Service revenue 22,800Gasoline expense 800Salary payable 2,200The owner, Michael Mower, invested $22,600 at the beginning of the year and withdrew $5,000 during the year for personal use.
Option D , 15,100
Solution:
The formula for net income is calculated through total expenditures subtracted from total revenues.
Net Income = Service Revenue - Salary Expense - Repairs Expense - Supplies Expense - Gasoline expense
= $22,800-$4,500-$800-$1,600-$800
= $15,100
Net Income = $15,100
To calculate Michael's Landscaping's net income for the year, total revenue of $22,800 is subtracted from total expenses of $7,700, resulting in a net income of $15,100.
Explanation:To determine the net income or loss for the year for Michael's Landscaping, we need to calculate the total revenues and subtract the total expenses. In this case, the Service revenue represents the total revenue amount, while the other listed items (except for Accounts receivable and payable, Truck, Equipment, Cash, Notes payable, and Salary payable) represent expenses.
The total revenue is $22,800 (Service revenue). The total expenses are the sum of Salary Expense, Repairs Expense, Supplies Expense, and Gasoline Expense, which equal $4,500 (Salary expense) + $800 (Repairs expense) + $1,600 (Supplies expense) + $800 (Gasoline expense) = $7,700 in expenses. Therefore, the net income is calculated as:
Net Income = Total Revenue - Total Expenses = $22,800 - $7,700 = $15,100.
So, the correct answer is (d) $15,100.
________ involves the study of an individual's involuntary responses to marketing stimuli, including eye movement, heart rate, skin conductance, breathing, brain activity (using functional magnetic resonance imaging [fMRI]), and brain waves (electroencephalography [EEG]).
a.Neuromarketing
b.Neuroscience
c.Cerebromarketing
d.Stimulus marketing
Answer:
A. Neuromarketing
Explanation:
Neuromarketing uses functional magnetic resonance imaging and brain waves to study the involuntary responses to marketing stimuli of an individual
Neuromarketing is the study of involuntary responses to marketing stimuli via neuroscientific methods such as fMRI and EEG to understand consumer behavior and tailor marketing strategies.
Explanation:The study of an individual's involuntary responses to marketing stimuli, such as eye movement, heart rate, skin conductance, breathing, brain activity using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), and brain waves using electroencephalography (EEG), is known as neuromarketing. Neuromarketing employs neuroscientific methods to understand the consumer's black box, which contains the buyer characteristics and the decision process that elicits responses to marketing stimuli. The stimuli considered in neuromarketing can be interpersonal or intrapersonal and involve planned marketing activities as well as environmental factors influenced by social, economic, political, and cultural circumstances.
Neuromarketing uses tools like functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and EEG to record neurological responses and create a detailed understanding of how consumers react to different marketing stimuli, enabling companies to tailor their marketing strategies more effectively.
The proceeds of a foreclosure sale did not yield enough money to pay off the first mortgage holder. The mortgage holder
Answer:
In some states and depending if the mortgage was not a non-recourse debt the lender may file a deficiency suit against the borrower. Refinanced loans or home equity loans are not considered non-recourse debt. A deficiency judgement allows a lender to go after other real or personal property the borrower owns.
Meitneria and Seaboria specialize in the production of heavy machinery and textiles respectively. While Meitneria doesn't produce textiles, Seaboria is not as technologically advanced as Meitneria. In this situation, according to the Heckscher-Ohlin theory:
Answer:
This theory allows a country to specialize in manufacturing and exporting products that can be produced more efficiently in other countries.
Explanation:
This theory allows a country to specialize in manufacturing and exporting products that can be produced more efficiently in other countries. This theory basically states that a country can decide to specialize in the manufacture of certain products that it has comparative advantage in the market while importing products that can be produced more efficiently in other countries.
Tyrone was recently promoted to manager. Although he used to take advice from his peers, he seems no longer willing to listen to any input from them or his boss, and is determined to run the project how he thinks best. This is an example of which personal barrier to communication?
A.) variation in interpreting informationB.) an oversized egoC.) a tendency to judge others' messagesD.) variable skills in communicating effectivelyE.) an inability to listen with understanding
Answer:
B.) an oversized ego
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that this is an example of an oversized ego. An ego is an individual's sense of self-importance. When Tyrone got promoted his ego enlarged, and he now believes himself to be way more important than his peers and thus no longer listens to them, since he believes that he knows everything and that his peers no very little compared to him.
Jennifer has come to realize that conflict has both functional, as well as dysfunctional, outcomes. She has observed examples of both in her organization. Last month, Jennifer's department experienced constructive conflict during a meeting. Which of the following is not an outcome of this functional conflict?A) the quality of decisions is improvedB) creativity and innovation are stimulatedC) tensions are releasedD) groupthink is increasedE) interest and curiosity are encouraged
Answer: Group think is increased.
Explanation:
Groupthink is a situation in a decision making process or team involvement where members agree on a single decision despite not fully being satisfied with the consensus decision.
A constructive conflict would enable members of a team to air their views therefore groupthink would be non existent.
The saving and investment equation
a. shows that a country with negative NFI must be saving less than it is investing domestically.
b. can be written: S = I + NFI.
c. tells us that savings will be invested domestically or overseas.
d. All of the above.
Answer: The correct answer is "d. All of the above.".
Explanation: These statements are correct according to the saving and investment equation because this equation shows that a country with negative NFI must be saving less than it is investing domestically. Also can be written: (S = I + NFI) and tells us that savings will be invested domestically or overseas.
A _____ is a business structure of interdependent organizations that reaches from the point of product origin to the consumer, which results in the "Placement" part of the marketing mix.
a. facilitating agency or place member
b. selective distribution channel
c. marketing channel or channel of distribution
d. transportation channel or channel of movement
e. marketing mix intermediary
Answer:
C) marketing channel or channel of distribution
Explanation:
The distribution channel (or marketing channel or downstream supply chain) refers to the chain of businesses that act as intermediaries through which a product or service passes. The distribution channel starts at the producer of the product or service and ends in the final customer.
What are the two most common adjustments made during a month with a universal life insurance policy?
Answer:
1. Cost of Insurance
2.Cash Value
Explanation:
Universal life insurance premiums consist of two components:
1. Cost of Insurance (COI) amount
2. A saving component which is known as the cash value
In a universal life insurance policy, the two most common adjustments made during a month that each month, the cost of the death protection is deducted from the cash value, and the current interest rate is credited. In other words we explain as the excess of premium payments above the current cost of insurance is credited to the cash value of the policy, which is credited each month with interest. The policy is debited each month by a cost of insurance (COI) charge as well as any other policy charges and fees drawn from the cash value, even if no premium payment is made that month