Answer:
C
Explanation:
Mitosis is a growth division unlike meiosis which an organism undergoes to produce gametes or sex cells during sexual reproduction.
Mitosis is a kind of cell division that results in two daughter cells, identical in genetic composition. An organism can undergo mitosis in asexual reproduction. For each mitotic division, two daughter cells emerge (duplication division), which will propagate the number of the species.
In a case of heavy predation, the prey organism will depend on diverse number to keep its species from getting extinct. Hence, undergoing mitosis to duplicate itself asexually will be most beneficial in this scenario as a large number will increase the chance that some of them will not be a victim of predation.
What modern organism did pterosaurs have a similar ecological role to and why?
Answer:
Birds.
Explanation:
Pterosaurs are nothing but extinct clade flying reptiles of the order Pterosauria . For most of the Mesozoic, they existed: that is from those in the late Triassic to the end of the Cretaceous. Pterosaurs are the first vertebrate to have evolved powered flight.
Birds, are the modern organism analogous to the pterosaurs as Birds can fly and hunt insects and fish out of the ocean.
According to blood pressure measurements, _____ represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts.
A. distal
B. systolic
C. medial
D. diastolic
What is the name of the point where the two parietals articulate with the occipital bone?
Answer:
Lambdoid suture
Explanation:
The parietal bones are two bones, located above the temporal, behind the frontal and in front of the occipital. The occipital is an odd bone of the skull, with important cranial joints and sutures. The lambdoid suture extends through the back of the head. Each parietal bone joins the occipital bone in the lambdoid suture, that is, the lambdoid suture is the joint in the back of the skull that connects the parietal bones with the occipital bone.
Transfer RNA __________. ANSWER Unselected is produced in the nucleolus Unselected binds to its specific amino acid in the active site of an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase Unselected is translated into protein Unselected has catalytic activity and is thus a ribozyme Unselected tags a growing polypeptide for export to the endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- binds to its specific amino acid in the active site of an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
Explanation:
Transfer RNA or tRNA is the RNA which scans the mRNA and adds specific amino acid to the nascent peptide to form a protein molecule.
There are many specific types of tRNA which brings specific amino acid to the growing peptide.
The tRNA binds the specific amino acid in a reaction catalyzed by the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase which contains an active site to bind tRNA and amino acid. The reactions get their energy from the breakdown of the ATP molecule. The reactions bind the specific amino acids in the specific synthetase enzyme with tRNA.
Thus, the selected options are the correct answer.
Adrenalin (epinephrine) is the "fight-or-flight hormone". One of its physiological roles is to mobilize fuel stores in preparation for activity. Given this, which of the following does NOT typically occur in response to the release of adrenalin? A) Glycolysis in the muscle B) Glycogen synthesis in the liver C) Gluconeogenesis in the liver D) Glycogen breakdown in the muscle
Answer:
B) Glycogen synthesis in the liver
Explanation:
Adrenaline (epinephrine) is the hormone which is released in the situation of stress like fight-or-flight and causes sympathetic autonomic nervous system (ANS) to get activated. At the time of fear/fright or during fight we need more energy. In case of fright like when we see a lion, we need more energy so as to run while in case of fight we need more energy to act. So in these situations our body causes stored energy reserves to breakdown so that more and more ATP could be produced. Glycolysis in muscles, glycogen breakdown in muscles and gluconeogenesis in the liver, all these processes produce ATP in our body but option C which talks about glycogen synthesis will not lead to the production of ATP in the body in response to release of adrenaline.
The process of biological evolution often allows humans to survive consistent environmental stresses that occur across multiple generations. As humans colonized Earth's diverse environments, they encountered hot, dry areas and decided to settle. What trait likely offered an advantage in this environment?
Answer:
The ability to produce sweat to cool their bodies.
Explanation:
Evolution may be defined as the change in the the characteristics of the species with respect to time. The process of the natural selection plays an important role in evolution.
As the humans are living in hot and dry areas, this allow the change in their physiology and genes that help them to survive according to the environment. The humans produce more sweat. They have well developed sweat glands. These glands help in the production of sweat that ultimately causes cooling in their body.
Which information is important to obtain during the nursing assessment of a female who is taking oral contraceptives?
During the nursing assessment of a female who is taking oral contraceptives, it is important to obtain information like history of menstrual cycle, weight gain/weight loss details etc.
Explanation:
Oral contraceptives are medications that prevent pregnancy. They are also known as birth control pills. They are hormonal preparations that may contain combinations of the hormones estrogen and progestin or progestin alone.
During the nursing assessment of a female who is taking oral contraceptives it is important to know about the patient's history. They should get information like head ache, weight gain/ weight loss details, irregular bleeding and mood changes.
Other important details that need to be taken are age of the patient, how frequently patient is taking oral contraceptive, number of children the patient have, any previous abortion etc.
Studies of nonhuman primate grooming and human touch reveal that a key function of tactile contact includes all but which one of the following
Answer:
Control subordinates.
Explanation:
Animal behavior may be defined as the field of biology that studies the experimental study on the animals. Different types of behavior of animals can be analyzed by the experiments of animal behavior.
The control and uncontrol group both can be involved in the experiments. During the study on the non human primate and the effect of the human touch shows the control subordinates in the experiment.
Thus, the answer is control subordinates.
The body uses two types of amino acids: essential and nonessential. Which of the following statements about essential and nonessential amino acids is correct?
There are 11 essential amino acids.
Nonessential amino acids cannot be produced in the body.
There are 11 nonessential amino acids.
The body can produce essential amino acids when the amino acid pools are diminished.
Answer:There are 11 nonessential amino acids.
Explanation:amino acids are monomers of proteins.proteins are made up of carbon,hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen.there are 20 amino acids found in proteins.
Plants cam produce all the amino acids they need but animals cannot.
Essential amino acids are those that animals cannot produce by themselves and so need to obtain from their diet.there are 9 in numbers.
Non-essential amino acids are produced by the animals.they are not necessarily non-essential as the name indicates.they are 11 in numbers.
The correct statement is that there are 11 nonessential amino acids. Essential amino acids cannot be produced by the body and must be obtained from the diet, while nonessential amino acids can be produced by the body.
Explanation:The correct statement about essential and nonessential amino acids is: There are 11 nonessential amino acids. Essential amino acids are those that the body cannot synthesize on its own and therefore must be obtained from the diet. There are 9 of these essential amino acids. Nonessential amino acids, on the other hand, can be produced by the body and thus are not required in the diet. There are indeed 11 nonessential amino acids. The statement that the body can produce essential amino acids when the amino acid pools are diminished is false, as the body requires intake of essential amino acids from food sources.
Learn more about Amino Acids here:https://brainly.com/question/31442968
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Hardened deposits of cholesterol that accumulate in the structure that stores bile are known as:_______ (1) gallstones (2) ulcers (3) goiters(4) allergies
Answer: option 1) gallstones
Explanation:
Bile is derived from the degradation of Cholesterol, a vital component of cell membranes. This Cholesterol is produced in the Liver; so bile as well is produced in the Liver.
Once produced, bile is transported through the bile duct to the Gall bladder, where it is stored until when needed for fat digestion.
GALLSTONES, however, are composed of cholesterol, bile pigments and calcium salts.
Thus, gallstones is the answer.
In which of the following situations would you expect to find the largest number of K-selected individuals?
A) a recently abandoned agricultural field in Ohio
B) the sand dune communities of south Lake Michigan
C) the flora and fauna of a coral reef in the Caribbean
D) South Florida after a hurricane
E) a newly emergent volcanic island
Answer:C
Explanation:
K-selected species e.g Elephants, are species characterized by a more stable population and such species produce fewer offspring and their population is governed by their biotic potential. I. e maximum reproductive capacity
Answer:
The Correct Option is C: (the flora and fauna of a coral reef in the Caribbean)
Explanation:
There are some characteristics of K-selected individual that can make them survive in the flora and fauna of a coral reef in the Caribbean. One of them is the fact that they inhabit biological communities that are relatively stable such as climax forest or late-successional forests. The flora and fauna of the Caribbean is an example of this.
Place the layers of the trachea in order from deep to superficial.
a) mucosa, submucosa, hyaline cartilage, adventitia
b) submucosa, mucosa, hyaline cartilage, adventitia
c) adventitia, hyaline cartilage, submucosa, mucosa
d) adventitia, hyaline cartilage, mucosa, submucosa
e) hyaline cartilage, submucosa, mucosa, adventitia
Answer:
a) mucosa, submucosa, hyaline cartilage, adventitia
Explanation:
The wall of the trachea can be divided into four layers from the deep region to the superfacial region :
These are; mucosa, submucosa, the musculocartilaginous layer (hyaline cartilage), and the adventitia.
The adventitia is a connective tissue layer that combines with the musculocutaneous layer and with the connective tissue that encircles the trachea. It is composed of loose areolar tissue. This areolar tissue permits a considerable amount of movement of the trachea along its length.
The musculocartilaginous layer consists of the cartilaginous plates, fibroelastic tissue, and the tracheal muscle. The cartilaginous plates number and are composed of hyaline cartilage surrounded by perichondrium.
The submucosa contains many elastic fibers and fat cells and many small seromucous tubular glands, which open into the lumen of the trachea.
The mucosa has numerous low longitudinal folds and is lined with pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium, which contains numerous goblet cells and rests on a basement membrane.
I hope that helps!
Answer:
The correct answer is a) mucosa, submucosa, hyaline cartilage, adventitia.
Explanation:
The trachea is the conduit that allows the passage of air from the outside to the lungs, which is divided at its base into two bronchi.
The walls of the trachea have several layers of tissues, in order from deep to superficial:
Mucosa, has the same goblet cells that contain the pseudostratified epithelia that appear in most of the respiratory tract.
Submucosa, is dense connective tissue and continues with the perichondrium of the hyaline cartilage that constitutes the tracheal rings.
Hyaline cartilage, it is the most widely distributed cartilage. The tracheal cartilaginous ring is open, and the ends are joined by a fibroelastic ligament and bundles of smooth muscle that attach to the perichondrium (the outer layer of cartilage).
Adventitia, is the outermost layer and covers the outer part of the incomplete cartilaginous rings. It is connective tissue that may contain adipose tissue.
Marissa blows up balloons for a party. She decides how big or small to make each balloon. Why does the air she blows into each balloon take up all the space inside the balloon?
A. The particles of air move around and slide past one another and take the shape of the balloon.
B. The particles of air have a strong attraction between each other and the balloon.
C. The particles of air move freely, colliding with each other and the sides of the balloon.
D. The particles of air move and increase in size when they have more space in the balloon.
Answer:
Option C, The particles of air move freely, colliding with each other and the sides of the balloon
Explanation:
The air molecules exert force on the inner surface of the balloon due to which the material of the balloon stretches and it increases in size. If air is blown in large extent, it will exert more force on the balloon material thereby extending it to a larger extent but when air is blown in a smaller amount, the size of the balloon increases by a smaller extent.
Hence, option C is correct
A model for a company's revenue from selling a software package is R(p)equals=−2.52^2400p, where p is the price in dollars of the software. What price will maximize revenue? Find the maximum revenue.
A model for a company's revenue from selling a software package is R(p)=-2.5p² + 400p, where p is the price in dollars of the software. What price will maximize revenue? Find the maximum revenue.
Answer: p = $80, R = $16,000
Step-by-step explanation:
The maximum is the y-value of the Vertex.
Step 1: Use the Axis-Of-Symmetry (AOS) formula to find x:
x=[tex]\frac{-b}{2a}[/tex]
R(p) = -2.5p² + 400
a= -2.5 b=400
[tex]p=\frac{-(400)}{2(-2.5)}[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{-400}{-5}[/tex]
=80
∴ In order to maximize the value, the company will sell the software package for $80
Step 2: Find the maximum by plugging the p-value (above) into the given equation.
R(80) = -2.5(80)² + 400(80)
= -16,000 + 32,000
= 16,000
Which event (s) corresponded with a rapid increase in the population growth rate of Las Vegas, NV
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Please see the attachment
Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR? 1. The primers hybridize to the target DNA. 2. The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double-stranded target DNA. 3. Fresh DNA polymerase is added. 4. DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA. 2, 1, 4 3, 4, 2 3, 4, 1, 2 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 2, 4
Answer:
2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation:
2
Denaturation by Heat to separate double-stranded DNA into two single strands
1
Annealing Primer to Target Sequence
The primers that anneal (bind) to the complementary sequence marks the DNA target sequence
4
Extension
New double stranded DNA molecules that is identical to the original double stranded target DNA region is formed
3
End of the First PGR Cycle
Fresh DNA polymerase is added
The correct sequence of steps in a PCR cycle is 2 (denaturation), 1 (annealing), and 4 (extension), where DNA is first denatured, then primers anneal, and lastly, DNA polymerase extends the primers to create new DNA strands.
The process begins with denaturation, where the mixture is heated to a high temperature (around 95 0C) to separate the double-stranded target DNA. Following that, annealing occurs when the temperature is decreased to allow the primers to hybridize to the target DNA. The final step is extension, where DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA. Therefore, the sequence is denaturation (2), annealing (1), and then extension (4).
It should also be noted that fresh DNA polymerase is not added in every cycle, because the DNA polymerase used in PCR is heat-stable and can withstand multiple cycles of PCR without degradation. The optimal temperature for the DNA polymerase's activity is around 72 0C, which facilitates the synthesis of a new DNA strand complementary to the DNA template strand.
Why the membrane potential is negative, if there is a higher concentration of positive ions inside the cell than outside (counterintuitive at first)?
Answer:
Net membrane potential is equal to the difference of positive charge and negative charge existing at the inner and outer side of the cell respectively. Since outer negative charge is higher in concentration, the net membrane potential is negative
Explanation:
The cell membrane potential defined as the net difference of ion concentration existing at the inner and outer side of a cell membrane at nay instance.
When the cell is at the resting potential, the positive potassium ion starts accumulating at the inner surface of the cell membrane as it becomes favors positive potassium ion. This leads to development of negative potential at the outer side of cell membrane by the accumulation of negative ions or charges. Hence, a net negative potential membrane develops.
In a randomized, controlled, double-blind study: Select one:
a. experimental subjects are blind-folded when given the experimental treatment.
b. individuals will be assigned to an experimental or control group depending on whether they took part in a pilot study.
c. all experimental variables are held constant.
d. neither the experimenter nor the subject know whether the subject is in a control group or an experimental group.
e. All of the above.
Answer:
d
Explanation:
In a randomized, controlled, double-blind study neither the experimenter nor the subject know whether the subject is in a control group or an experimental group.
Randomized double-blind placebo control (RDBPC) trials are considered the epidemiological research of "gold standard." The best analogy is placebo management, which requires blindness of subjects, researchers and test workers. Trial's advantage over an observational study is its the ability to convey causality.
Which agent would be most appropriate to administer to a client with Alzheimer’s disease?
a. Omeprazole
b. Atropine
c. Granisetron
d. Donepezil
Answer: d. Donepezil
Explanation:
Alzheimer is a brain disorder. It destroys the memory as well as thinking skills. The person looses ability to perform simplest tasks. This disorder appears in mid-60s.
Donepezil is the agent which can be used for the treatment of Alzheimer disease. It helps in improving the memory, and awareness. It restores the functioning of the neurotransmitters in the brain.
Explain the precautions for immunizing children with Bruton's agammaglobulinemia.
Answer:
Avoid using killed vaccine for administration.
Explanation:
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia may be defined as the X linked disorder that affects the immune system of an individual. This disease is mainly caused by the mutation in the gene responsible for coding the Bruton tyrosine kinase.
The children suffering from this disease require special immunization and some precaution must be followed before immunizing them. These patients are not allowed to immunizes with the live vaccines as these vaccines can evoke the immune response strongly and child may get infected by the disease. The individual should not given immunosuppressive drugs or corticosteroids.
Thus, the answer is avoid using killed vaccine for administration.
Gas can enter the bloodstream and cause serious damage to the lungs or even death by:
A - Ascending too fast
B - Holding your breath while diving
C - Diving with respiratory congestion
D - All answers are correct
Answer:
Answer is D. All answers are correct.
Explanation:
All the activities given as the options will make a person breath-in compressed air which contain nitrogen. The nitrogen enters the body tissue at high pressure, this will cause pains in the joints, muscles, nausea and even paralysis.
What is the amino acid sequence for AUGUCGCCUUAA?
Answer:
Met-Ser-Pro.
Explanation:
The last 3 letters (UAA) are the Stop codons so they are not included in the sequence.
The type of nephritis that involves primarily the glomeruli is known as ____________________.
Answer:
Glomerulonephritis, this is the answer.
Final answer:
Glomerulonephritis is the type of nephritis involving the glomeruli, with potential causes including infections and immune conditions, and can lead to kidney failure if untreated.
Explanation:
The type of nephritis that involves primarily the glomeruli is known as glomerulonephritis and this condition refers to both acute and chronic nephritis, featuring inflammation of the capillaries of the renal glomeruli, which can lead to symptoms like blood or protein in the urine, increased blood pressure, and edema. Causes of glomerulonephritis may range from infections, such as those by Streptococcus pyogenes, leading to post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, to immune conditions and genetic defects. In severe cases, if left untreated, glomerulonephritis could progress to kidney failure.
A fracture in which cranial bones are pressed down inwardly toward the brain is called a depressed fracture
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The neurocranium consists of the eight bones that forms the cranial bones. The cranial cavity protects the brain and spinal cord from the injury and the shock.
A depressed fracture may be defined as a type of skull fracture that might occur due to trauma. If excess force is applied toward the brain this might cause the depressed fracture. The epidermis and meninges may gets breakdown during the fracture.
Thus, the answer is true.
ACE inhibitors work on the renin-angiotensin system to prevent the conversion of angiotension I to angiotensin II. Because this blocking occurs in the cells in the lung, which is usually the site of this conversion, the use of ACE inhibitors often results in: a) spontaneous pneumothorax. b) respiratory depression. c) unrelenting cough. d) pneumonia
Answer:
c) unrelenting cough
Explanation:
ACE inhibitors stand for Angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitors.ACE inhibitors are used for the treatment of high blood pressure and heart diseases. These inhibitors perform their action by causing a relaxation of the blood vessels which results in decreased blood pressure. Further, these inhibitors prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and the site of this conversion is the lungs, since this conversion is blocked by these inhibitors, an unrelenting persistent cough is a common side effect associated with the use of these inhibitors.ACE inhibitors commonly result in an unrelenting cough as a side effect due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs.
Explanation:ACE inhibitors work on the renin-angiotensin system to prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. This mechanism is crucial for regulating systemic blood pressure and kidney function. The question posed about the common side effect of the use of ACE inhibitors is related to the location of ACE production, which primarily occurs in the lungs. Among the listed options, the correct answer is that the use of ACE inhibitors often results in an unrelenting cough. This side effect is due to the inhibition of ACE which not only prevents the formation of angiotensin II but also increases levels of bradykinin, a peptide that can cause cough when not broken down by ACE.
Which is a weakness of traditional food webs when they are applied to complex ecological problems?
A) A food web does not represent all the links in an actual ecosystem.B) Food webs do not account for non-native species in the enviornmentC) The many food chains of a food web make it too complicated to use.D) Trophic levels are not taken into account when creating a food web.
Answer:
Answer is A. A food web does not represent all the links in the actual ecosystem.
Explanation:
A food web is a naturally interconnection of food chains. This means that, a food web consists of more than one food chain. Just like the food chain, the food web comprises of the same groups of organisms, that is, the producer, consumer and decomposed, but in large numbers or quantities.
A complete food web diagram is expected to have Sun as the source of light for a situation where plants are the producers.
A nurse is giving medication instruction to a client who is taking metoprolol (Lopressor). Which statement by the client would indicate that teaching has been effective?
Answer:
Lopressor may be defined as the drug used for the treatment of the hypertension and angina. The death of the risk can be minimized if the individual has heart failure.
This drug acts as the beta blocker that affects the heart circulation. This drug is taken in the case of the serious heart attacks only. The client statement that he shall never stop taking of this drug abruptly indicated the nurse teaching has been effective.
What is likely to be true of a population with an age structure that is pyramid shaped?
Answer:
It is as potential for the rapid growth in the future.
Explanation:
The age pyramid structure or population pyramid may be defined as the graphical distribution of the different age group of the population. Different age groups are pre-reproductive, reproductive and post reproductive.
Different age pyramids are expanding population ( pyramid shape) decline population ( urn shape) and stable population. The age group of the pyramid population determines the potential or the ability of the rapid growth of the country in the future.
You have a pea plant with round, yellow seeds. A cross test with green, wrinkled seeds (rryy) gives the following data: 50% of the offspring make round seeds, 50% of the offspring make wrinkled seeds, and 100% of the offspring make yellow seeds. What was the genotype of the original plant?
Answer:
RRYy
Explanation:
from the result of the progeny, it is obvious that the gene for yellow colouration is homozygous dominant while the genetype for seed shape round is heterzygous dominant.
Prevalence refers to
A) the number of individuals having a particular exceptionality.
B) the probability of having a child with a particular exceptionality.
C) the percentage of a population having a particular exceptionality.
D) the distribution of exceptionalities across different segments of the population.
Answer:
C) the percentage of a population having a particular exceptionality.
Explanation:
Prevalence is a statistical term used to express the total number of persons having a condition as a percentage of a particular population, at a particular period of time. For example, if stated that: the prevalence of autism as an exceptionality is put at 6% of the population of children in a state, it means 6 out of every 100 children in that state have autism as exceptionality.