Answer: option B) Organism Y has the benefit of not having to find a mate.
Explanation:
Unlike organism X, Organism Y is capable of reproducing it's young ones by undergoing meiosis or in the presence of a mate supply gametes that will then be fused together into a new offspring as characterized in sexual reproduction; AND ALSO in the absence of a mate undergoes mitosis, binary fission etc as characterized in asexual reproduction.
Answer:
B. Organism Y has the benefit of not having to find a mate.
Explanation:
Hope this helps have a great day
In ______, a strong magnet is used to produce scans that allow scientists to distinguish among different types of soft tissue in the brain.
Answer:
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Explanation:
MRIs are scans created by using high-frequency radio waves that make it so that doctors can distinguish between different types of soft tissue in the brain.
Describe the Phenotypes and Genotypes of the Rabbits
Answer:
The answer to your question is
a) BB and bb
b) 100% black
Explanation:
From the information given, we know that black rabbits are dominants and white rabbits are recessives.
a) We know that all the offspring is heterozygous so, the parents must be homozygous.
BB x bb
Punnett Square
b b
B Bb Bb ⇒ Offspring
B Bb Bb
Genotype of the parents= BB and bb
b) Phenotypes percents for the offspring = 100 % black
Three living species X, Y, and Z share a common ancestor T, as do extinct species U and V. A grouping that consists of species T, X, Y, and Z (but NOT U or V) makes up __________.
Final answer:
A grouping that consists of species T, X, Y, and Z, but not species U or V, is known as a monophyletic group or a clade, which includes an ancestor and all of its descendants as depicted on a phylogenetic tree.
Explanation:
A grouping that consists of species T, X, Y, and Z (but NOT U or V) makes up a monophyletic group, also known as a clade. This is because this group includes an ancestor (species T) and all of its descendants (species X, Y, and Z) and thus represents a single branch on the phylogenetic tree. Monophyletic groups are fundamental to understanding the evolutionary relationships between organisms, as they reflect a common evolutionary heritage and shared characteristics that are inherited from a common ancestor.
Within the context of evolution and phylogenetics, a phylogenetic tree is a diagram that shows how species are related to each other through common ancestors, displaying the inferred evolutionary relationships. The Linnaean system of classification organizes species into hierarchical groupings based on shared characteristics and phylogenetic relationships. A clade is a specific type of grouping in this system that is based on cladistics methodology, which compares traits in related species to determine ancestor-descendant relationships.
The mosses and ferns both require water to enable the sperm to travel to the egg and fertilize it. Does this indicate that the ferns and mosses have a close relation to water plants? Explain your reasoning.
Answer:
Yes, the ferns and the mosses might have close relation to water plants.
Explanation:
The adaptations of mosses and ferns show that they are primitive species which are imperfectly adapted to live in a terrestrial environment. For example, the mosses do not possess roots so that they can get water from the soil. Also, the mosses lack vascular tissues which allow transportation of water in a plant. Both, mosses and ferns, require for reproduction. These characteristics show that they once had ancestors that lived in the water. Hence, the mosses and ferns have close relation with water plants.
The need for water in fertilization processes of ferns and mosses doesn't mean they are closely related to water plants. This requirement reflects their primitive characteristics rather than an affinity with aquatic plants.
Explanation:The requirement of water for the process of fertilization in both ferns and mosses does not necessarily mean they are closely related to water plants. Many land plants, including ferns and mosses, have not fully adapted to the terrestrial environment and still require water for certain processes, like fertilization. It's their primitive characteristic rather than a sign of close relation with aquatic plants. Aquatic plants, on the other hand, have specifically adapted to survive and reproduce entirely in a water environment.
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Fill in the blanks. A limitation of using oral medications is that they are absorbed slowly and are affected by __________ and ____________.
Answer:
stomach acid , enzymes
Explanation:
Oral dosage medications, such as tablets and capsules are the most convenient way of administering a drug to patients. They are economical and the patient can use them without supervision. However, oral medications also have several disadvantages.
In emergency cases especially when the patient is unconscious, oral medications are not preferred because of slow absorption as compared to intravenous medication.Stomach acid and digestive enzymes can degrade the drug in the stomach or small intestine, lowering or completely diminishing its activity.Stomach acids (low pH) can easily dissociate the components of the drug. Therefore, drugs such as salicylic acid, aspirin, thiopental, secobarbital and antipyrine are administered through oral route because they can survive highly acidic pH.Depending upon the type of functional groups present in the drug, oral drugs are susceptible to degradation by enzymes. Resistance to enzymes and fluctuating pH levels are crucial predictors of drug stability.Some species form social groups only with members of the same gender. For example, elephants form groups with only females and their offspring. Once the male offspring reach a certain age, they leave the group and become solitary.
Which is a benefit of this type of social group structure?
A:Females do not have to compete for a mate.
B:Male offspring can belong to more than one social group.
C:Adult males can mate with females in several different social groups.
D:Females are the only ones responsible for taking care of the offspring.
Answer:
When the females tend to form a solitary group, the adult males have an advantage of mating with females in different social groups thus enhancing on the productivity of the species.
Explanation:
When both the sexes of the species tend to make a group, the males and the females of the group have to mate with the members of that particular group and hence the males have restricted mating options which reduce the size of the herd. When the females have a separate social group, the males can mate with the members of different groups and raise the herd size in a short period of time. This helps in the increase in the population size and also helps in avoiding inbreeding depression which happens among small grouped animals.
Elephants have a complex social structure and are organized around a system of herds composed of females and their calves.
The males after a certain age leave the group because adult males can mate with females in several different social groups.
The benefits of this type of social group are:
Males and females of the group have to mate with the member of a certain group, which reduces the restricted mating options and the size of the herd. The females when making a separate social group, males can mate with the members of different herds and raise the size of herds.This type of social structure helps in increasing population size and avoids inbreeding depression.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C.
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A group of students are reviewing the common conditions associated with the upper respiratory tract. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify what as a response to a specific antigen?
Answer:
Seasonal rhinitis
Explanation:
The seasonal allergic rhinitis refers to an inflammatory condition of the upper respiratory tract or upper airways especially nose caused by the exposure to the airborne allergens or harmless antigens like the pollens.
The seasonal rhinitis is usually observed during the fall season and spring when the pollens acts as an allergen and causes the itchy eyes, sneezing and runny nose.
The allergy is caused when the body produces a chemokine called histamine against the allergen and causes an inflammatory response.
Thus, Seasonal rhinitis is the correct answer.
Which function is NOT a property of life?
1. Populations of organisms rarely change over time.
2. Living things exhibit complex but ordered organization.
3. Organisms take in energy and use it to perform all of life's activities.
4. Organisms reproduce their own kind.
Answer: The function which is not a property of life is that the populations of organisms rarely change over time because evolution occurs.
Explanation:
Evolution is defined as the changes in the charachteristics of organisms of species over generations which relies on the process of natural selection.
Over hundred of years each specie and each organism of that specie has evolved because it has adapted new chnages according to the environmnetal chnages that had occured and their need of survival.
Evolution is basically the changes in the heritable genetic material.
Hence, this is not in accordance with the definition of life that populations dont change over time.
The statement 'populations of organisms rarely change over time' does not represent a property of life. Populations often change over time, driven by evolution.
Explanation:The function that does not represent a property of life from the provided list would be "Populations of organisms rarely change over time." In truth, populations of organisms often change over time due to evolution, which is driven by natural selection and genetic drift. This is a fundamental concept in biology, contrary to the permanence stated in the function. On the other hand, functions like exhibiting complex but ordered organization, using energy for life's activities, and reproducing one's own kind are all accurately described properties of life.
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When individuals of the same species are reproductively isolated, genetic differences may accumulate in sufficient number so that new species could emerge. Such an event would be an example of:______.a. micro-evolution. b. equilibrium.c. the founder effect. d. macroevolution.
Answer:
Such an event would be an example of the founder effect.
Explanation:
Genetic drift is an evolutionary mechanism in which the allelic frequencies in a population change through many generations. Its effects are harder in a small-sized population.
Genetic drift results in some alleles loss, even those that are beneficial for the population, and the fixation of some other alleles by an increase in their frequencies. The final consequence is to randomly attach one of the alleles.
Genetic drift has important effects on a population when this last one reduces its size dramatically because of a disaster -bottleneck effect- or because of a population split -founder effect-.
The founder effect is a special case of genetic drift. The new population derives from a small number of founder individuals coming from a bigger ancestral population, that established in a new environment. This subgroup carries with them some genetic information that they share with their original population. Over time, some genes can be lost or they can increase in frequency. This might cause reduced genetic variability and enhance the possibilities of a peculiar allelic composition. The new population can be very different from the original one, not only in their genotypes but also in their phenotypes. In some cases, these differences can lead to speciation.
The shoot system of a beavertail cactus consists of broad paddle-like structures covered with clusters of spines. The spines are modified leaves, so the flat green paddles must be modified _____. (Concept 35.1)
roots
stems
leaves
buds
None of the listed responses is correct.
Answer:
stems
Explanation:
Stems are one of the vegetative parts of a flowering plant. Stems have nodes and internodes. One or more leaves are attached to the stem on nodes. In beavertail cactus, the leaves are modified into spines to prevent the loss of water. These modified leaves are present on a paddle-like structure. Since leaves are borne on nodes of the stem, the paddle-like structure of these plants represents their stem that bears the leaves.
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. The poles receive the highest amount of insolation.
b. The highest levels of insolation occur in the equatorial and tropical latitudes.
c. Insolation is equal at all surfaces across the globe.
d. There is always a very predictable latitudinal gradient of insolation.
Answer:
b. The highest levels of insolation occur in the equatorial and tropical latitudes.
Explanation:
As we know insolation is zero at the poles and maximum at the equator. It decreases from the equator to poles. B is the right option.The sun is closest to the earth in January (winter in the northern hemisphere), so that the maximum solar insolation received in the southern hemisphere is greater than that received in the northern hemisphere. At the equinoxes, solar insolation is at a maximum at the equator and is zero at the poles.
The highest levels of insolation generally occur in the equatorial and tropical latitudes. Insolation refers to the Sun's energy received on a surface, which varies depending on latitude and is influenced by factors such as the Earth's axial tilt and seasons.
The correct answer from the given options is 'b. The highest levels of insolation occur in the equatorial and tropical latitudes'. Insolation refers to the amount of the Sun's energy that is received on a surface. This energy varies depending on latitude, with the highest levels found around the equator where sunlight is direct. As we move towards the poles, the angle of sunlight becomes more oblique resulting in lower levels of insolation.
Options 'a', 'c', and 'd' are not generally true. The poles do not receive the highest amount of insolation and insolation is not equal at all surfaces. Also, the latitudinal gradient of insolation is influenced by the season and Earth's axial tilt, thereby making it less predictable.
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A novice nurse provides aftercare instructions to a client who has just had sutures removed. Which statement by the novice nurse requires the nurse preceptor to clarify?
Answer:
Statement like this 'If the wound edges are red or raised, you should call your doctor." need to be clarified by a nurse preceptor.
Explanation:
Suture is a thread-like material or a stitch which is used to hold together or sew tissue or surgical incision together.
A nurse preceptor is a nurse that is highly experienced and known to be competent, playing a role as a role- model or point of call either to a newly employed staff nurse or a nurse that has just been posted to a new unit or section, where he/she has no experience about.
In this case , the novice nurse must clarify the statements from the the nurse preceptor before disseminating it to the client. This is very important , in order to avoid a negative aftermath effects.
In an individual with Aa BB Cc dd Ee alleles, assuming independent assortment, how many different gametes are possibIn an individual with Aa BB Cc dd Ee alleles, assuming independent assortment, how many different gametes are possible?
Answer: Eight (8) different kinds of gametes can be produced by an individual with the genotype AaBBCcddEe.
Explanation: The total number of gamete that can formed from a given genotype is given as 2^n, where n is the number of heterozygous loci.
For genotype AaBBCcddEe, the number of heterozygous loci is 3 (Aa Cc and Ee).
Therefore, 2^n = 2³ = 2 x 2 x 2 = 8
______________ sources of water pollution are relatively easy to monitor and regulate while __________ sources of water pollution are difficult to monitor and cleanup.A. Domestic; industrialB. Primary; tertiary pollutantC. Nonpoint; pointD. Tertiary pollutant; primary
Answer:C. Point, nonpoint
Explanation:
Point source of water pollution originate from a single source and the source of origin can be determined. Industrial and sewage drainage systems are the examples of point source pollutants. The source of pollutant is easy to detect and monitor.
Non-point source of water pollution the source of pollution remains undetermined. The pollutants may enter in water body through multiple sources. Hence, it is difficult to track back the source of single pollutant. Thus non-point source pollution cannot be clean and monitored.
Bacteria reproduce ______ through cell fission. However, in another process, a tube of cytoplasm can temporarily connect two bacterial cells. Some DNA passes through this tube. Like ______ reproduction, this process causes genetic variation. However, it does not produce offspring.
Answer:
1. Asexually
2. Sexual
Explanation:
Asexual reproduction in bacteria occurs through the process of cell fission. For instance, binary fission includes replication of bacterial DNA followed by inward folding of the plasma membrane to divide the parent bacterial cell into two daughter cells.
Bacterial also exhibits genetic recombination. Conjugation is one method of genetic recombination in bacteria in which a conjugation tube is formed between two bacterial cells. Bacteria exchange genetic segments through the tube. It results in the production of genetic variations in the recipient bacteria like that of sexual reproduction.
However, the process of genetic recombination in bacteria does not produce progeny as the sexual reproduction does.
A student is looking at a bacterial specimen using the oil immersion lens, but has forgotten to put immersion oil on the slide. The specimen will appear:__________A) smaller than it would if immersion oil was used.B) larger than it would if immersion oil was used.C) somewhat fuzzy and have poor resolution.D) the same as it would if the immersion oil was used.E) to have no color.
Forgetting to use immersion oil when observing a bacterial specimen using an oil immersion lens would likely result in a blurry image with poor resolution, as the oil aids in the transmission of light for improved image resolution.
Explanation:If a student is looking at a bacterial specimen using the oil immersion lens and forgets to use immersion oil on the slide, the specimen is likely to appear somewhat fuzzy and have poor resolution (option C). The use of immersion oil is necessary when using the oil immersion lens because it helps to increase the resolution of the image. As light passes from the slide to the lens, some of it is lost when it hits the air. This loss of light reduces the resolution of the image. However, because immersion oil has the same refractive index as the glass slide and lens, the use of the oil prevents loss of light, thus improving the resolution of the image and the overall clarity of the bacterial specimen.
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Without immersion oil on the slide, the image of a bacterial specimen viewed using an oil immersion lens appears fuzzy and lacks good resolution. This is due to light scattering, as immersion oil is meant to minimize this by matching the refractive index of the glass slide and the lens.
Explanation:If a student is looking at a bacterial specimen using the oil immersion lens and forgets to put immersion oil on the slide, the specimen will appear somewhat fuzzy and have poor resolution. The purpose of the immersion oil is to minimize the scattering of light, as it passes through the air above the slide, by matching the refractive indices of the glass slide and the oil immersion lens. This increases the resolution or ability of the microscope to distinguish two adjacent structures as separate. Thus, the absence of immersion oil leads to light scattering, degrading the resolution and clarity of the image.
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In the process of carbon fixation, RuBP attaches a CO2 to produce a six-carbon molecule, which is then split to produce two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate. After phosphorylation and reduction produces glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P), what more needs to happen to complete the Calvin cycle?
Answer:
The 3GP is reduced to 2 molecules of 3 carbon compounds called TRIOSE PHOSPAHATE (TP) This reaction involves the supply of ATP and Co enzymes NADPH.
Most of the compound TP, is converted to regenerate ribulose biphospate,(RuBP) a compound for fixing C02,The reaction involved ATP. The remaining amount of TP condense to Hexose Phosphate used to produce glucose, cellulose, fatty acids amino acids .
Since there is continuous supply of RuBP;with enzyme RUBISCO and oxygen the Calvin Cycle continues.
Explanation:
How can organisms be so unique if the nucleotides making up dna are all the same between organisms?
Answer:
All organisms are made up of the four nucleotide bases of the DNA. Yet still all organisms are different from one another due to the sequence of the arrangement of these nucleotides. The pattern of arrangement of the nucleotides determines which organisms will be more similar and which will be more different from one another. The pattern of arrangement leads to the formation of genetic code which will differ in organisms. Hence, all organisms are made of the 4 nucleotides but differ due to the pattern of arrangement of the nucleotides.
True/False: Both plant and animal-eating dinosaurs existed during the Jurassic
Period.
Answer:
true because dinosaurs that eat plants and others that eat meat was during the same period of time
In the chart below, identify the structures that will develop in each whorl in the mutant flowers. (the structures in wild-type flowers and one mutant have already been filled in for you.) drag the labels to their appropriate locations in the chart. labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Question does not have chart in it. So i have added the full chart with answers. See attachment.
Answer:
a. sepal
b. sepal
c. sepal
d. petal
e. carpel
f. petal
g. carpel
h. sepal
Apparently, mating outside of monogamous pairings is widespread in species 2. What would be the logical prediction to make before comparing the testes size of males of the two species?
Answer:
There is no relationship between the observation and the size of testes.
Explanation:
There is no relationship between the observation and the size of testes.
when scientists use their 5 senses to lean new information it is called what
Answer:
The act of observing or making an observation.
Explanation:
A scientist claimed that hemophilia is caused by a functional deficiency in Factor VIII. The evidence in the passage that would best support this claim is that Factor VIII is:
A.a soluble blood protein.B.produced by a gene on the X chromosome.C.able to relieve hemophilia symptoms.D.encoded by a gene that contains introns.
The best evidence that hemophilia is caused by a deficiency in Factor VIII is that c) Factor VIII is able to relieve hemophilia symptoms. This directly suggests that the absence of functional Factor VIII is the root cause of the disorder.
The best evidence in the passage supporting the claim that hemophilia is caused by a functional deficiency in Factor VIII is that c) Factor VIII is able to relieve hemophilia symptoms. This means that patients treated with Factor VIII can see an improvement in their condition, which directly suggests that a lack of functional Factor VIII causes hemophilia.
A. Factor VIII is a soluble blood protein - While this is true, it does not directly support the claim that a deficiency in Factor VIII causes hemophilia.B. Factor VIII is produced by a gene on the X chromosome - This statement explains the genetic inheritance of the disorder but does not directly link the deficiency to hemophilia symptoms.C. Factor VIII is able to relieve hemophilia symptoms - This is the correct answer. If administering Factor VIII improves symptoms, it demonstrates that its deficiency is the underlying cause of hemophilia.D. Factor VIII is encoded by a gene that contains introns - This is a factual statement about the gene’s structure but does not provide evidence linking the deficiency to the disease's symptoms.The nematode Ascaris lumbricoides infects humans, spending most of its adult life inside the intestines of its host. To be infected, a person must ________________.
Answer:to be infected,a person must ingest food contaminated with it's egg
Explanation: Ascaris lumbricoides is a parasitic roundworm found in the intestine.It causes Ascariasis.
It is a round enlongated worm which move by contracting it's muscles.
They live in the intestine of their host and sucking in food which they digest.they are able to survive in a region that has low oxygen.
When they are mature,the male and female mate and discharge the eggs in the intestine of the host.these eggs are then expelled along with the host's faeces.
When another host ingest the eggs by food contaminated by it,the larva is released from the egg and continues it's life in the intestine of it's host.it develops into an adult,mates and the cycle repeats itself.
From the hazards listed below, determine which could require foot protection. (Select all that apply). A)Falling objects B)Loose cords C)Sharps D)Slippery areas E)Hazardous f)liquids G) Low-hanging beams
Falling objects, sharps, and hazardous liquids are hazards that may require foot protection to prevent possible injuries. It's important to wear suitable foot protection while dealing with these hazards.
Explanation:The hazards that could require foot protection include
A) Falling objects,
C) Sharps, and
E) Hazardous liquids.
Falling objects can cause foot injuries if they land on one's feet. Similarly, sharps such as needles, glass shards, or metal pieces can cause foot harm if stepped on. Hazardous liquids might lead to chemical burns, infections or other injuries if they come into contact with skin. Therefore, wearing appropriate foot protection such as steel-toed boots or safety shoes when dealing with these hazards is essential to avoid injuries.
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Foot protection is required for a) falling objects, c) sharps, and e) hazardous liquids. These hazards pose risks such as physical injury from impact, punctures, and chemical burns or other skin damage, thus necessitating the use of protective footwear.
From the list of hazards provided, the ones that could require foot protection include:
a) Falling objects: These pose a risk of injury as they could fall on a person's feet.c) Sharps: Sharps such as needles or metal scraps on the floor could puncture footwear and injure the feet.e) Hazardous liquids: Corrosive or toxic liquids can damage skin on contact, so protective footwear is necessary to prevent foot injuries.To use appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), workers must be aware of hazards such as falling objects, sharps, and hazardous liquids to maintain a safe working environment.
A 14-year-old boy has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following pathophysiologic phenomenon is most responsible for his symptoms?
A) The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is lysing many of the boy's neutrophils.
B) Viruses are killing some of his B cells and becoming incorporated into the genomes of others.
C) The EBV inhibits the maturation of white cells within his peripheral lymph nodes.
D) The virus responsible for mononucleosis inhibits the maturation of myeloblasts into promyelocytes.
Answer:
B) Viruses are killing some of his B cells and becoming incorporated into the genomes of others.
Explanation:
Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis by following mechanism.
1) Epstein-Barr virus attaches to and infects epithelium of the throat where it replicates and causes pharyngitis.
2) Virions enter the lymphoid vessels and are carried to the lymph nodes. Some virions escape the lymphnode trap and are carried to the bloodstream.
3) Virions attach specifically to B lymphocytes and infect them, producing either latent infection or productive infection.
4)The infected B lymphocytes actively replicate and differentiate into cells producing random immunoglobulins.
5)T cells respond to infection and destroy the lymphocytes replicating EBV vitus.
6) Latently infected B lymphocytes become immortal. They are not attacked by T cells.
A researcher is culturing cells that require oxygen to live in an incubator where the gas levels are carefully regulated. If the researcher observes that the pO2 in the incubator is 200 mmHg, what can the researcher deduce about the pO2 of her cells?
Answer:
He can deduce that The pO2 of her cells is less than or equal to 200 mmHg.
Explanation:
Partial pressure of oxygen(pO2) measures the amount of gaseous oxygen dissolved in the blood. It purposes to measure the effectiveness of the lungs in pulling oxygen from the atmosphere to the lungs.
In the incubator where the gases levels are carefully regulated, a pO2 of 200mmHg on the incubator deduces that the pO2 of her cells is equal or less than 200mmHg.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) Organisms are open systems as they can exchange both energy and materials with their environments. b) In an open system energy can be converted from one form to another. c) Energy can be transferred between a system and the surroundings. d) Organisms are open systems as they can create energy from their environments.
Answer:
d) Organisms are open systems as they can create energy from their environments. The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can not be created or destroyed, it can be only changed or transferred from one form to another, like radiant energy to heat, motion energy to electrical, chemical to mechaqnical energy, among other examples. This law is also called: the law of conservation of energy.
Explanation:
A 2-year-old swallowed watch batteries. Following ingestion, kidney function was impaired, and the heart began to fail. Which of the following was the most likely cause?
A. Karyorrhexis.
B. Coagulative necrosis.
C. Ammonia accumulation.
D. Caseous necrosis.
Answer:
Coagulative necrosis
Explanation:
When cell death occurs due to ischemia or infarction then this is termed as Coagulative necrosis.During this type of necrosis, cell death occurs in a localized area due to lack of oxygen and other nutrients. When a two year old swallows watch batteries then these batteries becomes trapped in the digestive system and inside the digestive tract , the positive and negative terminals of the battery gets bridged by the mucosa leading to the production of the electrical current and increase in the pH of the mucosa.All these condition leads to coagulative necrosis due to which the kidney gets affected and heart failure occurs .Answer:
ammonia accumulation
Explanation:
The provider notes that the client's hemaglobin is 8.2g/dL. Which of the following supplements will the provider recommend to the client?
-Ferrous sulfate
-Magnesium oxide
-Potassium chloride
-Calcium carbonate
Answer:
Ferrous sulfate
Explanation:
Hemoglobin test is used to measure the levels of hemoglobin in the blood. Hemoglobin is a protein found in the Red blood cells and it helps in the transportation of oxygen to the lungs. Normal ranges are from 11g/dl and above and anything below shows some deficiency.
Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiencies anemia. Iron is essential since it helps build up the hemoglobin.
Since the above patient had below normal level of hemoglobin Ferrous Sulfate is the best recommendation.