Question :
The question is incomplete. The full question is as follows :
A 69 Y/O female with a right hip fracture was admitted to the orthopedic unit from the emergency department shortly after falling in her yard. Thirty-two hours later she underwent surgery to repair the hip and returned to the orthopedic unit post operatively. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 4 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 2 pressure injury over the coccyx.
Review of her hospital admission assessment record revealed incomplete assessment of this area due to difficulty turning the patient related to her level of pain and large size. Documentation during her 8 hour stay in the emergency department record was also incomplete. Initial documentation of the pressure injury on the coccyx was found in the patient's operating room record.
For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:
a. Community Acquired Pressure Injury
b. Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only
c. Hospital Acquired and Unit Acquired Pressure Injury
Answer:
B) Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only .
Explanation:
The reason for the above mentioned answer is that pressure injury was first documented greater than 24 hours after arrival to the hospital.
It is unknown if the patient obtained the pressure injury in the emergency department or on the orthopedic unit.
Therefore, this pressure injury is recorded as a hospital acquired pressure injury.
Hence option B) hospital acquired pressure injury. is the right answer.
The nurse should be alert to which adverse assessment finding when transfusing a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) too rapidly?
Answer:
Crackles auscultated bilaterally
Explanation:
She must be alert to prevent crackle in the lungs. When the flow rate of a blood transfusion is increased rapidly, it can result into an overload of blood circulation. This can cause crackles in the human lungs. It is important to note that a decrease in the temperature and respiratory rate are not as a result of fluid overload. However, a bilateral crackle signifies the presence of crackles in the both lungs of the human.
The brain's ability to reorganize and change its structure and function throughout the life span is known as ___________.
Answer:
Neuroplasticity, also it could be named as “Brain plasticity, Neuroelasticity or Neural plasticity”.
Explanation:
Neuroplasticity is the ability to make adaptive changes related to the structure and function of the nervous system. So we can talk about two types of neuroplasticity: structural or functional. The main objective of neuroplasticity is to optimize the neural networks during phylogenesis, ontogeny and physiological learning, as well as brain injury. There is evidence that neurogenesis (birth of brain cells) occurs not only in babys and young people but also in adults.
Before surgery, the surgical procedure and postoperative care were discussed with Mr. Peterson and his wife. As part of this teaching, the Petersons were taught that coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery was being done to: A. Venous blood is drained into the cardiopulmonary bypass machine B. C. improve myocardial blood flow
Answer:
C. improve myocardial blood flow
Explanation:
The CABG surgery is performed when coronary arteries supplying blood to heart tissue are blocked or narrowed. Hence CABG surgical procedure is performed to improve poor blood flow to the heart by grafting another body tissue in the coronary artery. Thus, this grafting procedure repair tissue damage and reduce arterial narrowing or blockage.
A nurse teaches the warning signs that should be reported throughout pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the prenatal instructions?
Answer:
1) "I'll call the clinic if I have abdominal pain."
Explanation:
The presence of abdominal pain in prenatal period is a warning sign because it may be a kind of menstrual cramp and stretching of ligaments; may cause abortion. Hence, the pregnant mother should see a doctor if the pain is persistent and unbearable. Other signs such as ankle swelling, irregular contractions without pain, and vaginal discharge known as Leucorrhea are common complaints by pregnant mothers and not serious.
Which of the following has the highest relative protein requirement expressed in grams of good protein per kg body weight per day?a. 2-year old childb. adult manc. teenagerd. all have the same protein requirement
Answer:
The correct answer is - option A.
Explanation:
Protein requirement is depend on the body of an individual body weight however according to the RDA for protein the requirement is 0.8 gm per kg. However relatively it is more in the 2 year child has highest than other as their development process is faster than others.
Thus, the correct answer is - option A.
A person cannot see a cotton thread from another cottage, but if you wound thousands of threads together in a rope it would be visible at the same distance . How is this statement an analogy to our DNA extraction
Answer: Like the thread, molecule of DNA is so thin, around 2 nm in length so, it cannot be seen with the naked eye. When DNA is clumped together, it is visible. To see or examine the DNA, it must be isolated from the cell and examine under microscope. Strands of DNA should be released from the nuclei of the cell and should be separated from other components such as histone protein around which it is coiled, before examining it.
Answer:
anywhere from 3 weeks to 4 weeks
Explanation:
_____________ refers to the extent to which mental processing and mental activity is devoted to specific stimuli.
Answer:
"Attention" refers to the extent to which mental processing and mental activity is devoted to specific stimuli.
Explanation:
Attention allows us to plan or preview and monitor and regulate our thoughts and actions. Attention is the first step in the learning process. We cannot understand, learn or remember that which we do not first attend to. Attention is the behavioral and cognitive process of selectively concentrating on a discrete stimulus while ignoring other perceivable stimuli. It is a major area of investigation within education, psychology, and neuroscience.
Cindy smacks her thumb with a hammer while building a doghouse. The sense of ________ provides her brain with information about the pain she feels.
Answer:
impact and seeing the hammer hit it
Explanation:
Teresa would like to begin eating healthier and she has created a plan of action to help reach that goal. Her study group meets at a fast food restaurant twice a week, and she has asked them to meet at the library instead. Teresa understands that to meet her goal, she needs to:_______.
Answer:
The correct answer is - modify her environment.
Explanation:
Teresa has created the plan to achieve her goal of eating healthy food. Teresa knows that environment is one of major factors that help in achieving the plan of action as she asked her study group at library instead of fast food restaurant.
Modifying to place that is not related to food or unhealthy food is help in work on the plane of action to reach to goal.
Thus, the correct answer is - modify her environment.
Imagine rubbing your fingertips across a pane of smooth glass and then across a brick. What kinds of skin receptors help you distinguish the two surfaces?
Answer:
1)Meissner corpuscles
2) Pacinian corpuscles
3) Merkel Cells
Explanation:
These receptors mentioned above contributes to the tactile preception of the texture of the surface. As the smooth glass surface is smooth while the surface of the brick is slightly rough, these receptors senses it and produces a response. The meissner corpuscles are innervated by rapidly adapting afferents , Pacinian corpuscles are innervated by Pacinian afferents while Merkel cells are innervated by slowly adapting type 1 afferents.
When evaluating a family health tree, a family member who has a heart attack at age 70 raises more genetic concerns than a relative who develops colon cancer at age 28. True or false?
Answer: False.
Explanation:
If a person has a family history of colon cancer, his or her risk of developing the disease is nearly double. The risk further increases if other close relatives have also developed colon cancer or if a first-degree relative was diagnosed at a younger age like 28years old.
A person who develop colon cancer at 28years of age raises more genetic concern.
sellers of weight loss supplements often clain that products help you lose weight by blocking the absorption of protein from foods___________
Answer:
sellers of weight loss supplements often claim that products help you lose weight by blocking the absorption of protein from foods "false"
Explanation:
The weight loss supplements are those that makes it difficult for the dietary fats to get absorbed in the body and also it decreases the appetite of a person. But is has nothing to do with the protein, which has been asked in the question.They can also have various side effects as well. There are various natural weight loss supplements available in the market which are safe as it do not have any side effect. few of them are like, green tea extract, guar gum, Hoodie etc.
Weight loss supplements may use substances that block protein absorption, leading to energy dissipation as heat and thereby causing weight loss. This operates similarly to a substance known as DNP.
Explanation:The sellers of weight loss supplements are likely referring to a process in which certain substances can block the absorption of proteins and cause weight loss, often similar to the effect caused by a substance known as DNP (Dinitrophenol). DNP works by blocking the movement of protons through ATP synthase, effectively putting a stop to ATP production. When ATP production is stopped, stored energy is released. Instead of being used for normal metabolic processes, this energy is dissipated as heat. This breakdown of the body's normal metabolic process can lead to weight loss as the body essentially burns more energy than it is taking in through food.
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Piaget believed that the __________ fit entirely in a single stage of cognitive development called the __________ stage.
Piaget theorized that children's intelligence fully exists within the Concrete Operational stage of cognitive development. This stage, occurring from ages 7 to 11, involves children understanding concepts through direct physical manipulation and observation. Abstract or hypothetical understanding develops later, in the final stage.
Explanation:Jean Piaget, a Swiss developmental psychologist, proposed a theory of cognitive development that consists of four major stages. According to him, the child's intelligence fits entirely in a single stage of cognitive development called the Concrete Operational stage. This stage typically lasts from ages 7 to 11 and is characterized by the development of logical thought. Children at this stage start to understand concepts like conservation, reversibility, and causality, but their understanding is limited to concrete objects and situations they can physically manipulate and observe. They still struggle with abstract or hypothetical concepts, which Piaget believed come later in the final stage of cognitive development, the Formal Operational stage.
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Piaget believed that the stages of cognitive development fit entirely in a single stage of cognitive development
Explanation:Piaget believed that the stages of cognitive development fit entirely in a single stage of cognitive development called the sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational stage. According to Piaget, each stage represents a distinct shift in how we think and reason as we progress from infancy to adulthood.
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What psychological strategy allows an athlete to gain control over the thought process, changing negative thoughts to more productive positive thoughts?
Answer:concentration
Explanation:
What is the term that Thomas and Chess used to describe babies who have negative moods, are slow to adapt to new situations, and tend to withdraw when confronted with a new situation?a) slow-to-warm babies
b) easy babies
c) difficult babies
d) low intensity babies
Answer:
a) slow to warm babies
Explanation:
Estimation by Thomas and Chess shows that slow to warm babies tends to have difficult temperament which lead to negative mood swings, they are usually slow to adapt to new environment or situations,, their reactions are usually heightened up with intense rate and due to their irregular routines as part of their characteristics tend to withdrawn when they are confronted with a new situation.
the home health nurse visits a client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus sle. which client statement is most important for the nurse to follow up?
Answer:
"One of my favorite activities is working in my garden."
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that one main client statement that would indicate that the nurse needs to do a follow-up would be "One of my favorite activities is working in my garden." This would indicate to the nurse that he/she must explain that gardening should be reduced, since there is no cure for systemic lupus erythematosus, the only treatments begins with lifestyle modifications, including sun protection and diet. Being outdoors and in the dirt can cause flare-ups which are difficult to be treated.
A pregnant client tells her nurse that she is interested in arranging a home birth. After educating the client on the advantages and disadvantages, which statement would indicate that the client understood the information?A. "I like having the privacy, but it might be too expensive for me to set up in my home."B. "I want to have more control, but I am concerned if an emergency would arise."C. "It is the safest method for giving birth because there are no interferences."D. "The midwife is trained to resolve any emergency, and she can bring any pain meds."
Answer:
"B. "I want to have more control, but I am concerned if an emergency would arise."
Explanation:
Planned home birth which entails a pregnant client opting to give birth at home rather than in a clinic or hospital often comes with its advantages and disadvantages. An healthcare provider or a certified midwife always assists during labor and delivery at home.
The statement which best indicates that the pregnant client understood the pros and cons of home birth is statement B, "I want to have more control, but I am concerned if an emergency would arise." One of the advantages of home birth is that the pregnant client in her convenient setting that looks familiar, exercise more control over the experience. The pregnant client can decide to take any birthing position she likes, take warm showers, use aromatherapy etc.
Statement A, C, and D don’t indicate a better understanding because of the following:
1. Home birth is less expensive compared to giving birth in hospitals.
2. Complications might arise during birth, and it is more risky compared to giving birth at the hospital.
3. A certified midwife can handle the delivery process, but in case of any emergency, the pregnant client would be transferred to a nearby hospital for proper handling of the emergency.
What illustrative educational tool is intended for an easy way for consumers to remember which food groups to eat the most of and which to eat the least of?
MyPlate intended for an easy way for consumers to remember which food groups to eat the most of and which to eat the least of.
Explanation:
MyPlate supplanted the past MyPyramid picture as the apparatus to assist Americans with settling on more advantageous food decisions. The objective is to get individuals to consider building a sound plate at eating times. They give guidance to sound Americans ages 2 years and over about nourishment decisions that advance wellbeing and forestall infection.
To meet the Dietary Guidelines, pick an eating routine with the majority of the calories from grains, vegetables, and organic products, low-fat dairy items, lean meats, fish, and poultry. Eating an eating regimen wealthy in certain vegetables and organic products as a feature of a general solid eating regimen may secure against particular sorts of malignancies.
Diets wealthy in food containing fiber, for example, a few vegetables and natural products, may lessen the danger of coronary illness, corpulence, and type 2 diabetes.
B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson did not believe that thoughts and expectations play a role in learning. However, ________ suggested a cognitive aspect to learning.A. Edward C. Tolman
B. Ivan Pavlov
C. Little Albert
D. Rosalie Rayner
B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson did not believe that thoughts and expectations play a role in learning. However, Edward C. Tolman suggested a cognitive aspect to learning.
A. Edward C. TolmanExplanation:
Latent learning indicated that there was a subjective segment of discovering that was not identified with molding. Edward C. Tolman first proposed the hypothesis of inert learning in 1930, when his investigations with rodents demonstrated that learning was occurring even without the prompt nearness of a prize. Watson advanced an adjustment in brain science through his location Psychology as the Behaviorist Views it, which was given at Columbia University in 1913.
Edward C. Tolman suggested a cognitive aspect to learning, contrasting with strict behaviorists like B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson who did not believe that thoughts and expectations play a role in learning.
Explanation:Strict behaviorists such as B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson were of the belief that learning could be fully accounted for by the processes of conditioning. They argued that cognition, including thoughts and expectations, had no role in the learning process. Skinner even viewed the mind as a "black box" that could not be understood or studied. Contrasting with this behaviorist perspective, Edward C. Tolman proposed a cognitive aspect to learning. Tolman's experiments with rats showcased that organisms could learn without immediate reinforcement, which implied that some form of mental processes played a part in learning. This idea pointed towards latent learning, where knowledge can be acquired without any obvious reinforcement and later influence behavior when needed.
The nurse manger is discussing self- awareness during a staff meeting. Which statement(s) by the staff nurse best depicts self-awareness? Select all that apply.
A- I'm tired and hungry. I need to take a break and get something to eat.
B- I asked to be transferred because the nurses on this unit are critical and make me feel inadequate when I work with them.
Answer:
A- I'm tired and hungry. I need to take a break and get something to eat.
B- I asked to be transferred because the nurses on this unit are critical and make me feel inadequate when I work with them.
Explanation:
Both the statements depict self-awareness and consciousness of the nurse manager. The nurse staff is very well aware of her physical and mental needs. She feels that taking care of her diet and eating first while hungry is a self-awareness of her physical needs. Second statement shows that she is self-aware of her potential as a nurse and wants a positive working environment to protect her mental peace. Therefore, she asked for transfer because she feels inadequate professionally due to over-critical nature of fellow nurses in her unit.
With respect to permissions for uses and disclosures, HIPAA divides health information into three categories. Into which category do discussions with family members go?
Answer:
Uses or disclosures that require generally oral agreement only.
Discussions with family members about a patient's health information fall into the category of disclosures for treatment, payment, and healthcare operations under HIPAA.
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, healthcare providers and plans are permitted to share relevant health information with family members or friends involved in the patient's care or payment for their care, as long as the patient does not object. This permission can be given explicitly by the patient or inferred if the patient is not present and the provider determines sharing the information is in the patient's best interest.For instance, if a patient is unconscious or in an emergency, medical personnel may inform the patient's family about their condition and the care being administered. Additionally, if a family member helps with picking up prescriptions or managing the patient's healthcare, they can receive pertinent information required to complete these tasks.However, healthcare providers must ensure that they share only the necessary information and observe any restrictions imposed by the patient.What treatments have you learned about that are effective in the treatment of schizophrenia and what are some of the problems with each treatment?
Answer: The most effective treatments for schizophrenia are currently antipsychotics.
Explanation:
Schizophrenia is a serious mental disorder characterized by the interpretation of reality abnormally. The causes for which a person can have schizophrenia are unknown but research shows that genetic factors play an important role when it comes to developing a disease.
Schizophrenia has no cure, treatments are focused on helping to improve the patient's quality of life. That is, the person can control the symptoms of the disease. For many years various medications have been used for the treatment of schizophrenia. Antipsychotics are the most used due to the improvements that people present.
There are the first generation antipsychotics, such as:
- Chlorpromazine
- Fluphenazine
- Haloperidol
- Perphenazine
These antipsychotics have very frequent and very significant side effects such as sedation, drowsiness, dizziness, and symptoms similar to those that a person with Parkinson's disease can have such as stiffness, tremors, and involuntary muscle contractions. The advantage that these medicines offer is their low cost.
There are also second-generation antipsychotics, such as:
- Clozapine
- Olanzapine
- Risperidone
- Ziprasidone
- Iloperidone
These antipsychotics take advantage of the first generation because the side effects are less risky, but their cost is higher.
The greatest barrier that impedes pregnant women from receiving early prenatal care in Vermont is the lack of accessibility to health insurance, not the lack of education.True/false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The rate of women who are pregnant and are receiving pre-natal care in Vermont was about 80 to 85 percent from year 2000 to 2010. This is below the set target by the Department of Health in Vermont for 90% of women to receive prenatal care. It was thought that lack of education was the main cause of these women not accessing prenatal healthcare, but after assessing Vermont healthcare current state, it is clearly seen that a lack of accessibility to health insurance is the major barrier for these women.
WILL MARK BRILLIANT
Which of the five essential domains is second-largest in the Head Start curriculum?
A approaches to learning
B physical development and health
C social and emotional development
D language and literacy development
Answer:
The correct answer to this question is option C- Social and emotional development
Explanation:
Social and emotional development is one of the major needs of a growing child and it must be inculcated in them from a very young age. It basically means how young children start to understand themselves and their surroundings. It is essential that they develop interpersonal skills and socializing skills among themselves from the beginning of school. That is when they are meeting new people and learning new ways to interact.
Professor Smith refuses to learn his students’ names because he believes the names will take up space in his memory that he needs to store research-related information. Professor Smith’s belief about his memory is INCORRECT because _________.a. research-related information is stored in semantic memory.b. the students’ names are maintained in short-term storage.c. long-term storage holds unlimited amounts of information.d. working memory allows him to continually maintain both sets of information.
Answer:
Long-term storage holds unlimited amounts of information.
Explanation:
Memory may be defined as the storage of any information in the brain. Two main types of memory present in the human brain are long term memory and the short term memory.
The long term memory stores information for the long period of time whereas short term memory erase after sometime. The professor refuses to learn the student's name because long term memory is unlimited and contains lot of information.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
_______ occurs when someone is not getting enough calories and protein in their diet. This condition is characterized by severe wasting of muscle and fat due to the body breaking itself down for fuel.
Kwashiorkor occurs when someone is not getting enough calories and protein in their diet.
Nutritional disorderAccording to the questions;
The cue given is;This condition is characterized by severe wasting of muscle and fat due to the body breaking itself down for fuel.In essence, a nutritional deficiency which is characterized by not getting enough calories and protein in diet is Kwashiorkor.
This condition is mainly common in Children.
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Final answer:
Protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) occurs from a deficiency in both calories and protein, leading to severe muscle and fat wasting. The two main forms are kwashiorkor, associated with swelling and growth problems, and marasmus, characterized by extreme weight loss.
Explanation:
The condition that occurs when someone is not getting enough calories and protein in their diet, leading to severe wasting of muscle and fat as the body breaks itself down for fuel, is known as protein-energy malnutrition (PEM). This severe form of malnutrition is caused by starvation and can result in a person becoming extremely thin or emaciated. Two specific forms of this condition are kwashiorkor, which is often associated with swelling (edema) and growth , particularly in children, and marasmus, which involves dire calorie deficiency leading to significant loss of body weight, muscle atrophy, and weakness.
Undernutrition, due to an inadequate diet both in terms of protein and caloric intake, causes the body to catabolize, or break down, its skeletal muscle leading to loss of muscle mass, strength, and functionality. Conditions like kwashiorkor are prevalent in developing countries and have devastating effects on children, leading to fatigue, skin problems, weak muscles, swelling, and potential mental from improper brain development.
A group of nursing students is role playing situations to practice using therapeutic communication techniques. What would the students identify as verbal communication?
Answer: the patients' underlying emotion.
Explanation:
Therapeutic communication techniques are the techniques or methods used in communicate and gain the patients' trust. It is a face-to-face or say, physical process of interactions. Therapeutic communication techniques are used mostly by Nurses(although other profession is health sector do use it as well, but, nurses do have more interactions with their patients that others).
Theerapeutic communication techniques includes (but not limited to) the following;
===> The professionals trying to put the patients' emotions into words.
====> Encouraging comparision.
===> Acknowledgement.
===> Making observations.
Therefore, from the question we can deduce that the students will identify the PATIENTS' UNDERLYING EMOTIONS as verbal communication.
Verbal communication, in the scenario given, would include interactions making use of spoken or written words. Such activities may include asking patients questions, giving orders, or explaining procedures. This form of communication is vital in nursing because it fosters understanding and trust.
Explanation:In the context that is given, the nursing students would identify verbal communication as any interaction that makes use of spoken or written words. This would encompass things such as asking questions, giving orders, and explaining procedures which all require verbal exchange. For example, a nurse explaining to a patient what kind of care their wound requires involves spoken words, thus it is considered verbal communication. On the other hand, a nurse writing a report about a patient’s health status also involves using words, hence it also falls under the category of verbal communication. Verbal communication is crucial in nursing as it helps promote understanding and establish trust between the nurse and the patient.
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When a conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus, a resulting decrease in the conditioned response is called?
Answer:
Extinction
Explanation:
For example, your dog will naturally salivate at he sight of food, but if you train your dog to salivate when you ring a bell when presenting food to it, the dog overtime associates the bell with food, and would salivate anytime you ring a bell even without presenting its food.
The salivation that is stimulated by the ringing of the bell even in the absence of food is the conditioned response.
The ringing of the bell is the conditioned stimulus, while the food that naturally initiates salivation is the unconditioned stimulus.
Overtime, if you keep ringing the bell (conditioned stimulus) only without presenting food (unconditioned stimulus), your dog would gradually stop salivating without sighting food. This reduction or decrease in the conditioned response (salivating) is what is referred to as extinction.
The provider explains to the client, who smokes, that cells in the trachea are substituted with cells that are better able to survive. This process is known as:_______.A) Metaplasia.B) Hyperplasia. C) Dysplasia.D) Atrophy.
Answer: Metaplasia
Explanation: The process of substituting cells in the trachea with cells that can survive the harsh effect from smoking. This process is called Metaplasia.
Metaplasia is a form of Cellular adaptation process, which initiate response to different types of stimuli and adverse changes in the environment.
Metaplasia involves changing epithelial cells (which lines all the body parts) to another cells that can resist the adverse effects from the extrinsic environment.
Mrs. Roberts, in a diabetic coma, has just been admitted to Noble Hospital. Her blood pH indicates that she is in severe acidosis (low blood pH), and measures are quickly instituted to bring her blood pH back within normal limits. Define pH and note the normal pH of blood. Why is severe acidosis a problem?
Answer and explanation:
pH : It is a figure expressing the alkalinity or acidity of a solution on a logarithmic scale according to which 7 is considered neutral , below 7 is considered acidic while above 7 is considered alkaline. pH scale ranges from 0-14.
Normal pH of blood : The normal pH of blood ranges from 7.35 to 7.45 averaging 7.4.
Severe acidosis problem : Acidosis means high levels of acid in the body i-e decreased body pH thus causing an imbalance. Normally acid is removed either from lungs or kidneys. In the case of acidosis, both lungs and kidneys fail to remove excessive acid resulting in serious health problems. Due to severe acidosis respiratory centre in brain also becomes activated resulting in hyperventilation (faster and deeper breathing) in order to eliminate more carbondioxide gas in order to reduce acidity .